Related provisions for SUP 7.1.1
21 - 40 of 141 items.
3The FCA has a power under section 55Q to vary, or alternatively cancel, a firm’sPart 4A permission, or to impose requirements on a firm, in support of an overseas regulator. Section 55Q(4), (5) and (6) set out matters the FCA may, or must, take into account when it considers whether to exercise these powers. The circumstances in which the FCA may consider varying a firm’sPart 4A permission or imposing requirements in support of an overseas regulator depend on whether the FCA
3The FCA will actively consider any other requests for assistance from relevant overseas regulators (that is requests in relation to which it is not obliged to act under a Community obligation). Section 55Q, which sets out matters the FCA may take into account when it decides whether to vary or cancel a firm’sPart 4A permission or to impose requirements on a firm in support of the overseas regulator, applies in these circumstances.
3Where section 55Q(5) applies and the FCA is considering whether to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission or to impose requirements on a firm, it may take account of all the factors described in paragraphs 8.6.1 to 8.6.8 but may give particular weight to: (1) the matters set out in paragraphs (c) and (d) of section 55Q(5) (seriousness, importance to persons in the United Kingdom, and the public interest); and (2) any specific request made to it by the overseas regulator to impose requirements
(1) 1Unless (1A) applies to the firm, where,27 in accordance with DISP 1.10.1 R, a firm submits a report to the
FCA
reporting 500 or more complaints, it must publish a summary of the complaints data contained in that report (the complaints data summary).27(1A) (a) This paragraph applies to a firm which:(i) has permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activities or to operate an electronic system in relation to lending3; and(ii) has revenue arising from those activities3
(1) Where the firm's relevant reporting period (as defined in DISP 1.10.4 R or DISP 1.10.4A R as the case may be27) ends between 1 January and 30 June, the firm must publish the complaints data summary no later than 31 August of the same year.(2) Where the firm's relevant reporting period (as defined in DISP 1.10.4 R or DISP 1.10.4A R as the case may be27) ends between 1 July and 31 December, the firm must publish the complaints data summary no later than 28 February of the following
4For firms with only a limited permission that report complaints to the FCA under the reporting requirements in SUP 16.12, the FCA will publish the firm-level complaints data reported to it after the FCA receives an email from the firm under DISP 1.10A.4R. That email should confirm that the total number of complaints accurately reflects the report submitted to the FCA under SUP 16.12, that the total number of complaints has been published and where the information has been pu
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation (or, in relation to an appointed representative with a limited permission, provides that sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply in relation to the carrying on of the regulated activity which is comprised in the business for which his principal has accepted responsibility and for which he does not have limited permission)1. An
Where a person is already an appointed representative and he proposes to carry on any insurance mediation activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed insurance mediation activities include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts) and he wishes to carry on these activities. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities
FCA6 staff under executive procedures will take the decision to give a warning notice if the FCA6 proposes to:66(1) refuse an application for a Part 4A permission6 or to refuse an application to cancel a Part 4A permission6;66(2) impose a limitation or a requirement which was not applied for, or specify a narrower description of regulated activity than that applied for, on the grant of a Part 4A permission6;6(3) refuse an application to vary a Part 4A permission6, or to restrict
6FCA staff under executive procedures will take the decision where the FCA is proposing or deciding to:(1) refuse its consent to the granting by the PRA of an application for a Part 4A permission, or give its consent subject to conditions; (2) refuse its consent to the granting by the PRA of an application for the variation of a Part 4A permission, or give its consent subject to conditions; or(3) refuse its consent to the granting by the PRA of an application to perform a controlled
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
(1) A person (other than a firm with only a limited permission)15must satisfy the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:(a) the person must not be an authorised person, that is, he must not have permission under the Act to carry on any regulated activity in his own right (section 39(1) of the Act); (b) the person must have entered into a contract with an authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:(i)
(1) 15Under sections 20(1) and (1A) of the Act (Authorised persons acting without permission), if an authorised person carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purports to do so, otherwise than in accordance with his permission, he is to be taken to have contravened a requirement imposed by the FCA (in the case of a FCA-authorised person) or the FCA and the PRA (in the case of a PRA-authorised person).(2) In addition, under section 23(1A) of the Act (Contravention
(1) 15A firm must satisfy the conditions in section 39(1C) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:(a) the firm must have only a limited permission (section 39(1C)(a) of the Act);(b) the firm must have entered into a contract with another authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:(i) permits or requires him to carry on business of a description prescribed in the Appointed Representatives Regulations (section 39(1C)(b)(i) of the
As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person (unless he has only a limited permission)15, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act unless he has only a limited permission. A person15 cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised
(1) 8In relation to the cancellation or deferral of the payment of a coupon in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.64R (4) and GENPRU 2.2.64R (5), GENPRU 2.2.68A R, or GENPRU 2.2.69B R, the FCA18 expects that situations where a coupon may need to be cancelled or deferred will be resolved through analysis and discussion between the firm and the FCA18. If the FCA18 and the firm do not agree on the cancellation or deferral of the payment of a coupon, then the FCA18 may consider using its
Eligible partnership capital means a partners' account:(1) into which capital contributed by the partners is paid; and(2) from which under the terms of the partnership agreement an amount representing capital may be withdrawn by a partner only if:(a) he ceases to be a partner and an equal amount is transferred to another such account by his former partners or any person replacing him as their partner;2(b) the partnership is wound up or2 otherwise dissolved; or22(c) the BIPRU firm
Eligible LLP members' capital means a members' account:(1) into which capital contributed by the members is paid; and(2) from which under the terms of the limited liability partnership agreement an amount representing capital may be withdrawn by a member only if:(a) he ceases to be a member and an equal amount is transferred to another such account by his former fellow members or any person replacing him as a member; 2(b) the limited liability partnership is wound up or2 otherwise
(1) 8The effects of the mechanisms described in GENPRU 2.2.117A R will be more meaningful if they happen immediately after losses cause a significant deterioration of the financial as well as the solvency situation and even before the reserves are exhausted.(2) If a firm does not operate the loss absorption mechanism in a prudent and timely way, then the FCA18 may consider using its powers under 55J of the Act to, on its own initiative, vary the firm'sPart 4A permission to require
(1) CREDS covers only the requirements associated with a Part 4A permission to accept deposits. The Conduct of Business sourcebook (COBS) sets out additional requirements for credit unions that are CTF providers in relation to cash deposit CTFs.(2) Other permissions are covered elsewhere in the Handbook. So, for example, a credit union seeking a permission to undertake a regulated mortgage activity would need to comply with the requirements in the Mortgages and Home Finance: Conduct
CREDS sets out rules and guidance that are specific to credit unions. CREDS 10 refers to other more generally applicable provisions of the Handbook that are likely to be relevant to credit unions with Part 4A permission to accept deposits. For details of these provisions, we would expect credit unions to access the full text in the Handbook.
In substance, the Principles express the main dimensions of the "fit and proper" standard set for firms in threshold condition 5 (Suitability), although they do not derive their authority from that standard or exhaust its implications. Being ready, willing and organised to abide by the Principles is therefore a critical factor in applications for Part 4A permission, and breaching the Principles may call into question whether a firm with Part 4A permission is still fit and pro
The Principles are also relevant to the FCA's15 powers of information-gathering, to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission,15 and of investigation and intervention, and provide a basis on which the FCA15 may apply to a court for an injunction or restitution order or require a firm to make restitution. However, the Principles do not give rise to actions for damages by a private person (see PRIN 3.4.4 R).151515
A partner's account of a firm that is a partnership:(1) into which capital contributed by partners is paid; and(2) from which under the terms of the partnership agreement an amount representing capital may be withdrawn by a partner only if: (a) he ceases to be a partner and an equal amount is transferred to another such account by his former partners or any person replacing him as their partner; or(b) the partnership is wound up or otherwise dissolved; or(c) the firm has ceased
A member's account of a firm that is a limited liability partnership:(1) into which capital contributed by the members is paid; and (2) from which, under the terms of the limited liability partnership agreement, an amount representing capital may be withdrawn by a partner only if:(a) he ceases to be a member and an equal amount is transferred to another such account by his former fellow members or any person replacing him as a member;(b) the limited liability partnership is wound
COND gives guidance on the threshold conditions. The FCA3threshold conditions represent the minimum conditions for which the FCA is responsible,3 which a firm is required to satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in order to be given and to retainPart 4A permission. A PRA-authorised person or, as appropriate, a firm seeking to become a PRA-authorised person must also satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions for which the PRA is responsible in order to be given and
(1) Under section 55B(3) of the Act3, in giving or varying a Part 4A permission,3 imposing or varying any requirement or giving consent3, the FCA3 must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA3threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part 4A3
This part of the guidance deals with:(1) exclusions which are disapplied where the regulated activity relates to contracts of insurance;(2) exclusions which are disapplied where a person carries on insurance mediation; and(3) the following exclusions applying to more than one regulated activity:(a) activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business (article 67 (Activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business));(b) activities
The restrictions placed on the exclusions listed in PERG 5.11.3 G on 14 January 2005 have the following effects.(1) Unauthorised persons who:(a) introduce clients or customers to an independent financial adviser with a view to a transaction; or(b) deal as agent on behalf of their clients or customers with or though an authorised person; or(c) arrange for their clients or customers to enter into a transaction with or though an authorised person;will not be able to rely on articles
(1) The FCA1 will consider whether a firm satisfies, and will continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions in the context of the size, nature, scale and complexity of the business which the firm carries on or will carry on if the relevant application is granted.1(2) In relation to threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2D to 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act in respect of firms which are not PRA-authorised persons and paragraphs 3C to 3E of Schedule 6 to the Act in respect
Any person who is concerned that his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form in the decision tree in PERG 2 Annex 1 G):(1) Will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 2.3)?(2) Will I be managing the assets of an occupational pension scheme (see PERG 2.3.2G (3))?(3) If the answer is 'Yes' to (1)
The process of applying for Part 4A permission is available on the FCA website Apply for authorisation: www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation2. But a list of the activities for which permission may be given is annexed to this chapter (see PERG 2 Annex 2 G). You may find this helpful in providing an overview of the activities that are regulated. The list is included here because, with some exceptions, the investments and activities for which permission may be given
3This guide describes the FCA's approach to exercising the main enforcement powers given to it by the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (the Act) and by other legislation. It is broken down into two parts. The first part provides an overview of enforcement policy and process, with chapters about the FCA's approach to enforcement (chapter 2), the use of its main information gathering and investigation powers under the Act and the CRA (chapter 3), the conduct of investigations
3In the areas set out below, the Act expressly requires the FCA to prepare and publish statements of policy or procedure on the exercise of its enforcement and investigation powers and in relation to the giving of statutory notices. (1) section 63C requires the FCA to publish a statement of its policy on the imposition, and amount, of financial penalties on persons that perform a controlled function without approval; (1-A) 1section 63ZD requires the FCA, among other things, to
The minimum limits of indemnity for a firm whose Part 4A permission covers both insurance mediation activity and home finance mediation activity1is the higher of the limits of indemnity for these activities. If the firm opts for a single comparable guarantee to finance the claims which might arise as a result of both activities, the requirements for insurance mediation activity apply.1
The contract of professional indemnity insurance must incorporate terms which make provision for:(1) cover in respect of claims for which a firm may be liable as a result of the conduct of itself, its employees and its appointed representatives (acting within the scope of their appointment);(2) the minimum limits of indemnity per year set out in this section;(3) an excess as set out in this section;(4) appropriate cover in respect of legal defence costs;(5) continuous cover in
The FCA5 expects to maintain a close working relationship with certain
types of firm and expects that
routine supervisory matters arising can be resolved during the normal course
of this relationship by, for example, issuing individual guidance where
appropriate (see SUP 9.3). However,
where the FCA deems it appropriate,
it will exercise its own-initiative powers:55(1) in
circumstances where it considers it appropriate for the firm to
be subject to a formal requirement,
breach
The FCA 5 may also5 seek to exercise its own-initiative
powers in certain situations,5 including
the following:55(1) If
the FCA5 determines
that a firm's management, business
or internal controls give rise
to material risks that are not fully addressed by existing requirements,
the FCA5may
seek to use its own-initiative
powers.555(2) If
a firm becomes or is to become
involved with new products or selling practices which present risks not adequately
addressed by existing requirements,
8GEN 4.3.1 R (Disclosure in letters to retail clients) does not apply to a credit firm (other than a firm with a limited permission) with respect to the activity of entering into a regulated credit agreement as lender to which the Consumer Credit Directive applies, to the extent it would be contrary to the United Kingdom's obligations under an EU instrument.
8Regulated activities covered by a limited permission (see the "relevant credit activities" set out in paragraph 2G of Schedule 6 to the Act) do not fall within the scope of articles 5 and 6 of the Consumer Credit Directive, therefore GEN 4.3.7 R and the guidance related to it are not relevant to those activities.
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part 4A2 of the Act. The regulators2 will need sufficient time before a transfer is confirmed2 to consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency
The criteria that the appropriate authority2 must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:2(1) confirmation must not be given if the appropriate authority2 considers that:2(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members'