Related provisions for IFPRU 10.1.2
101 - 113 of 113 items.
(1) Dealing on own account means (for the purpose of GENPRU and BIPRU) the service of dealing in any financial instruments for own account as referred to in point 3 of Section A of Annex I to MiFID, subject to (2) and (3).99(2) In accordance with article 5(2) of the Capital Adequacy Directive (Definition of dealing on own account), a CAD investment firm that executes investors' orders for financial instruments and holds such financial instruments for its own account does not for
6Paragraph 2B(1) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 7(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive, paragraphs 2B(1) to 2B(23) of Schedule 6 to the Act implement article 5(4) of MiFID, paragraph 2B(4) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 2.9 of the Insurance Mediation Directive and paragraph 2B(7) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 8(1)(e) of AIFMD, although the Act extends the threshold condition set out in paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 of the Act to authorised persons
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its [relevant functions] are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business. |
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(2) |
Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning - |
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(a) |
the transmission of information; |
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(b) |
the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions]; |
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(c) |
the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE]; |
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(ca) |
the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities; |
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(d) |
the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and |
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(e) |
(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities. |
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(1) Cash obtained from borrowing, and borrowing which the authorised fund manager reasonably regards an eligible institution or an approved bank to be committed to provide, is not available for cover under COLL 5.3.3A R (Cover for investment in derivatives and forward transactions),3 except if (2) applies.3(2) Where, for the purposes of this section, the ICVC or the depositary4 for the account of the AUT or ACS4 on the instructions of the authorised fund manager4:44(a) borrows
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator9 immediately it becomes aware of any of the following matters in respect of one or more of its controllers: 9(1) if a controller, or any entity subject to his control, is or has been the subject of any legal action or investigation which might put into question the integrity of the controller; (2) if there is a significant deterioration in the financial position of a controller; (3) if a corporate controller undergoes a substantial
The FCA understands that in complying with condition 2(g) of the Part 30 exemption order, a firm is representing that it will not:(1) make use of the opt-out arrangements in CASS 7.1.7C G to CASS 7.1.7G G; or(2) conduct business to which the client money rules do not apply because of the exemption for CRD credit institutions and approved banks in CASS 7.1.8 R to CASS 7.1.11A R; or(3) enter into any arrangement relating to the transfer of full ownership of the client's money to
As part of its SREP, the FCA will also consider whether a firm should hold a capital planning buffer and the amount and quality of such capital planning buffer. In making these assessments, the FCA will have regard to the nature, scale and complexity of a firm's business and of the major sources of risks relevant to such business as referred to in the general stress and scenario testing rule and SYSC 20 (Reverse stress testing), as applicable. Accordingly, a firm'scapital planning
Under section 63E(7) of the Act, SYSC 5.2 does not apply to an arrangement which allows an employee to perform a function if the question of whether the employee is fit and proper to perform the function is reserved under any of the Single Market Directives or the auction regulation to an authority in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom.
(1) A transaction in a derivative must be within COLL 5.2.20 R (1) (Permitted transactions (derivatives and forwards)) and:(a) the underlying must be within COLL 5.6.4 R (5) (Investment powers: general) or COLL 5.2.20R (2)(f) to (i)2; and2(b) the exposure to the underlying must not exceed the limits in COLL 5.6.7 R (Spread: general),9COLL 5.6.8 R (Spread: government and public securities) and COLL 5.6.5 R (2).99(2) A transaction in an approved derivative must be effected on or
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
(1) A firm must notify the FCA11 of:3535(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, a Statement of Principle or a COCONrule)20; or2020(aa) a significant breach of any requirement imposed by the CCA or by regulations or an order made under the CCA (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies), but any notification under (aa) is required to be made only to the FCA; or 14(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations
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