Related provisions for PERG 6.7.11

FEES 3.2.1R01/03/2016

A person in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R37 as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FCA (in its own capacity or, if the fee is payable to the PRA, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)78 a fee for each application or request for vetting, or request for support relating to compatibility of its systems with 37FCA systems,7 or admission approval made, or notification or notice of exercise of a Treaty right given, or other matter

FEES 3.2.3BG01/04/2014

23If FEES 3.2.3AR (1)(a) applies to a fee payer, that fee payer would be expected to notify the FCA of these circumstances in advance of making its payment (and, in any event, no less than 7 days before the date on which the application for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission is made) unless such notification is impossible in the circumstances, eg, there is a sudden technological failure.

FEES 3.2.4G01/04/2013

The FCA expects that a person seeking to become a recognised body or a designated professional body or to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges or accredited bodies 15will generally pay their respective fees by electronic credit transfer.

FEES 3.2.5G01/03/2016

(1) (a) 37The appropriate authorisation or registration 8fee is an integral part of an application for, or an application for a variation of, a Part 4A permission ,24 authorisation, registration or variation under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations, registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order80or notification or registration under the AIFMD UK regulation24.16248(b) 37 Any application or notification24 received by the37FCA without the accompanying

FEES 3.2.7R01/03/2016

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees
31(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable (£)37	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26	(1) Unless (2) or (3) 80applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34 (2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: (a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or (b) the application is a limited permission case under . (A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34 (B) the application is:34 (i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1; (ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or (iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 80 (i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 80 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80 1 34 34 34 34	On or before the application is made
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30	As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4	(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable	On or before the notice of exercise is given
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order	2,000	On or before the application is made
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act 27 of, a collective investment scheme	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227 27	On or before the application is made
(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF 36	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36	On or before the date the application is made36
(e) The management company 27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act 27 27	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327 27	On or before the date the application is made28
28(ea) (i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation (ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation	FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4	On or before the date the notification is made
28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation	£750	On or before the date the application is made
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.	10,000	30 days after the order is granted
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or17 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 17 78	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made26
26(ga) Any applicant for: (i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35 administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35 (ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks 35	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE 78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 78 78	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)	FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(k) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting	FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2	On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA
(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year	FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2	On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges	50,000	On or before the date the application is made
2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29 (i) a firm applying to the FCA 29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA 29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EU CRR 29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or (ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA 29 5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's 29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EU CRR 29), any firm to which the FCA 29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5 1 1 2 29 5 78 29 5 78 29 5 78 29 78 29 78 29	(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1 firm submitting a second application for the permission or5 guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2 5 2 5 1 2 5 5 5 78 5 78 5	Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA 29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA 29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.2 29 2 78 29 78 29 78
29(oa) Either: (i) a firm applying to the 37 FCA for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37 FCA as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or (ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37 FCA for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37 FCA's assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37 FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach. 37 37 37 37 37	(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A. (2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application. (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements. (c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1. 37	Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37 FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37 FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance. 37 37
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26	(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B) or 3(C) 80 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application. (2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity 30.37 (2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37 in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37 (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application30.37 (3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).80 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1 30 30 80 80 1 78 78 37 78 37 80 80 37 1 37 30 30 23 37 37 37 11 37	On or before the date the application is made
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)	As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
2(q) A super7transaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing 13 79 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or (ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22 7 13 79 7 22 7	50,000	On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3 3 3
2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.	100,0006 6	Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6 5 6
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.	Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. 77 77 37 77 77 37 77 37	On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert. 37
6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA. 20	100,000	Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.
(u) [deleted]34 34	34	34
(v) A significant transaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars 22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or (ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring. A significant transaction does not include a super transaction. 22	20,000	On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.
[deleted]35 35	35	35
(x) (i) An issuer or person who: (1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and (2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report. (ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table. (iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).	5,000	On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R	On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations	FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.	(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or (ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g)); the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations	(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application. (2) Where the small payment institution: (i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or (ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (2) (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.	On or before the date the application is made.
A financial institution notifying the FSA FCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.	50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) [deleted]78 78	78	9 16 78
16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution 14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.	2,500	On or before the date the application is made.18
18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.	(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000. (2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.	On or before the date the application is made.
18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.	6,500	On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).	An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act . 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33
33(zr) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.	1,500	On or before the application for approval is made.
30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act	(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30 (2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 (3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80	Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80	On or before the application is made.80
32Part 2: Other fees
(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	(3) Due date
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).	(i) Where the issuer has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R, £250 in respect of that annual financial report. (ii) Where the issuer has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2), £250 in respect of that half-yearly financial report.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

SUP 8A.3.1G01/04/2014

The FCA intends to include any direction or determination made by the FCA waiving, varying or disapplying CCA requirements in the public register under section 347 of the Act.

SUP 8A.3.2D01/04/2014

A firm wishing to apply for a direction under section 60(3) of the CCA, must complete the application form in SUP 8A Annex 1 D and submit it to the FCA in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R, SUP 15.7.5A R, SUP 15.7.6A G and SUP 15.7.9 G.

SUP 8A.3.3D01/04/2014

A firm wishing to apply for a determination under section 64(4) of the CCA must apply to the FCA in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R, SUP 15.7.5A R, SUP 15.7.6A G and SUP 15.7.9 G.

SUP 8A.3.4D01/04/2014

A firm wishing to apply for a direction under section 101(8) of the CCA must complete the application form in SUP 8A Annex 2 D and the information form in SUP 8A Annex 3 D, and submit them to the FCA in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R, SUP 15.7.5A R, SUP 15.7.6A G and SUP 15.7.9 G.

SUP 8A.3.5G12/12/2014

The FCA will acknowledge an application promptly and, if necessary, will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. A firm should make it clear in the application if it needs a decision within a specific time.1

SUP 8A.3.6G01/04/2014

The FCA will treat a firm's application as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The FCA will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the FCA in some other way that it intends to pursue the application.

SUP 8A.3.7G01/04/2014

If the FCA decides not to give a direction or a determination, it will give reasons for the decision.

SUP 8A.3.8G01/04/2014

A firm may withdraw its application at any time up to the giving of the direction or determination. In doing so, a firm should give the FCA its reasons for withdrawing the application.

LR 3.2.1G01/04/2013

The FCA will maintain the official list on its website.

LR 3.2.2R01/04/2013

An applicant for admission must apply to the FCA by:(1) submitting, in final form:(a) the documents described in LR 3.3 in the case of an application in respect of equity shares;44(b) the documents described in LR 3.4 in the case of an application in respect of debt securities or other securities;(c) the documents described in LR 3.5 in the case of a block listing;(2) submitting all additional documents, explanations and information as required by the FCA;(3) submitting verification

LR 3.2.3G01/04/2013

Before submitting the documents referred to in LR 3.2.2 R (1), an applicant should contact the FCA to agree the date on which the FCA will consider the application.3

LR 3.2.4R01/10/2013

All documents must be submitted to the Issuer Management5at the FCA's address.5

LR 3.2.5G01/04/2013

The FCA will admit securities to listing if all relevant documents required byLR 3.2.2 R2 have been submitted to the FCA.2

LR 3.2.6G01/04/2013

When considering an application for admission to listing, the FCA may:(1) carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting with other regulators or exchanges;(2) request that an applicant, or its specified representative answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application for listing;(3) take into account any information which it considers appropriate in relation to the application

LR 3.2.7G01/04/2013

The admission becomes effective only when the FCA's decision to admit the securities to listing has been announced by being either:(1) disseminated by a RIS; or(2) posted on a notice board designated by the FCA should the electronic systems be unavailable.

SUP 13.7.3G01/04/2013

If a UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, regulation 12(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in its programme of operations, or the activities to be carried on under its EEA right, unless the relevant requirements in regulation 12(2) have been complied with. These requirements are:5(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FCA15 and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; or15(2) if the change arises as a result of circumstances

SUP 13.7.6AG07/03/2016

5For further details on giving the notices to the appropriate UK regulator, as described in SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3AG and SUP 13.7.3BG12, UK firms may wish to use the standard electronic15 form available from the FCA and PRA authorisation teams 15(see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)).15151551515

SUP 13.7.13AG01/04/2013

15Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.

SUP 13.7.15G21/12/2015

(1) 11A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to provide a cross border service, must not make any material changes to the service unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that;(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month has elapsed, beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice.(3) Paragraph (1)

REC 3.8.1R01/04/2013

A UK recognised body must give the FCA1:1(1) a copy of its annual report and accounts; and(2) a copy of the consolidated annual report and accounts: (a) of any group in which the UK recognised body is a subsidiary undertaking; or(b) (if the UK recognised body is not a subsidiary undertaking in any group) of any group of which the UK recognised body is a parent undertaking;no later than the time specified for the purpose of this rule in REC 3.8.2 R.

REC 3.8.2R01/04/2013

The time specified for the purpose of REC 3.8.1 R is the latest of:(1) four months after the end of the financial year to which the document which is to be given to the FCA1relates; or1(2) the time when the documents described in REC 3.8.1 R (1) or REC 3.8.1 R (2)(b) are sent to the members or shareholders of the UK recognised body; or (3) the time when the document described in REC 3.8.1 R (2)(a) are sent to the shareholders in a parent undertaking of the group to which that

REC 3.8.3R01/04/2013

Where an audit committee of a UK recognised body has prepared a report in relation to any period or any matter relating to any relevant function of that UK recognised body, the UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1a copy of that report.1

REC 3.8.4R01/04/2013

A UK recognised body must give the FCA1a copy of:1(1) its quarterly management accounts; or (2) its monthly management accounts;within one month of the end of the period to which they relate.

REC 3.8.5G01/04/2013

A UK recognised body is not required to provide quarterly and monthly management accounts in respect of the same period, but management accounts (whether quarterly or monthly) should be submitted for all periods. A UK recognised body may choose whichever method is the more suitable for it, but where it intends to change from providing monthly to quarterly management accounts (or from quarterly to monthly management accounts), it should inform the FCA1 of that fact.1

REC 3.8.6R01/04/2013

A UK recognised body must give the FCA1:1(1) a statement of its anticipated income, expenditure and cashflow for each financial year; and(2) an estimated balance sheet showing its position as it is anticipated at the end of each financial year;before the beginning of that financial year.

REC 3.8.7R01/04/2013

Where the accounting reference date of a UK recognised body is changed, that body must immediately give notice of that event to the FCA1and inform it of the new accounting reference date.1

COLL 11.6.1G01/07/2013

(1) Section 258A(1) and (2) and section 261Z(1) and (2)1 (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act, in implementation of article 60 of the UCITS Directive, provide1 that where a master UCITS is wound up, for whatever reason, the FCA is to direct the manager and trustee of any AUT or the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary of any ACS1 which is a feeder UCITS of the master UCITS to wind up the scheme, unless one of the following conditions is satisfied:1(a)

COLL 11.6.3R28/02/2014

Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that its master UCITS is to be wound up, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends to invest at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of another master UCITS:(a) its application for approval under section 283A of the Act for that investment;(b) where applicable, its notice under section 251 (Alteration of schemes and

COLL 11.6.4R01/04/2013

(1) The information in COLL 11.6.3 R must be submitted no later than two months after the date on which the master UCITS has informed the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS of the binding decision to be wound up.(2) By way of derogation from (1), where the master UCITS has informed the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS of the binding decision to be wound up more than five months before the date at which the winding up will start, the authorised fund manager

COLL 11.6.5R28/02/2014

Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that the master UCITS is to merge with another UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or divide into two or more such schemes, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends it to continue to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS:(a) its application under section 283A of the Act, for approval;(b) where applicable, a notice under section

COLL 11.6.7R01/04/2013

(1) The information in COLL 11.6.5 R must be submitted to the FCA no later than one month after the date on which the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS has received the information of the planned merger or division in accordance with regulation 13(6) of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) By way of derogation from (1), where the master UCITS provides the information referred to in, or comparable with, COLL 7.7.10 R (Information to be given to Unitholders) to the authorised

COLL 11.6.8G01/04/2013

Regulation 12(4) (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011 provides that where a master UCITS merges with another scheme, the master UCITS must enable its feeder UCITS to repurchase or redeem all the units of the master UCITS in which they have invested before the consequences of the merger become effective, unless the FCA approves the continued investment by the feeder UCITS in a master UCITS resulting from the merger.

COLL 11.6.9R28/02/2014

(1) Where:(a) the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS has submitted the documents required under COLL 11.6.5R (2) and (3); and(b) does not receive the necessary approvals from the FCA by the business day preceding the last day on which the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS can request repurchase or redemption of its units in the master UCITS;the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS must exercise the right to repurchase or redeem its units in the master UCITS

COLL 11.6.10R01/07/2013

Where:(1) the FCA approves an application under sections 283A (Master-feeder structures), 252A or 261S1 (Proposal to convert to a non-feeder UCITS) of the Act or regulation 22A of the OEIC Regulations that arises as a result of the winding-up, merger or division of the master UCITS (other than an application pursuant to COLL 11.6.5R (1)); and1(2) the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS holds or receives cash in accordance with COLL 11.6.9R (4) or as a result of a winding-up;the

COLL 11.6.11G01/07/2013

COLL 11.6.10 R gives effect to sections 283A(4), 252A(8) and 261S(8)1 of the Act and regulation 22A(4) of the OEIC Regulations which require the FCA to impose certain conditions when approving the re-investment of cash received from a master UCITS which has been wound up.1

COLL 11.6.12R01/04/2013

Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS has submitted the documents required under COLL 11.6.3R (1), COLL 11.6.3R (2), COLL 11.6.5R (1), COLL 11.6.5R (2) or COLL 11.6.5R (3) and has received written notice of any required approvals from the FCA, it must:(1) inform the master UCITS of those approvals; and(2) in the case of the required approvals received in respect of documents submitted under COLL 11.6.3 R (1) and COLL 11.6.5 R (2), take the necessary measures to comply

COLL 11.6.13R01/07/2013

Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:

REC 3.26.1G01/04/2013

1Under section 300B(1) of the Act (Duty to notify proposal to make regulatory provision), a UK RIE3 that proposes to make any regulatory provision must give written notice of the proposal to the FCA4without delay.344

REC 3.26.2G01/04/2013

1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FCA4may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):4(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.

REC 3.26.3G01/04/2013

1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FCA4may also by rules under section 293: 4(1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FCA4may reasonably require.4

REC 3.26.5R01/04/2013

1A notice under section 300B(1) of the Act of a proposal to make a regulatory provision must be in writing and state expressly that it is a notice for the purpose of that section. To be effective, a notice must: (1) 1contain full particulars of the proposal to make a regulatory provision which is the subject of that notice; and(2) 1either be accompanied by sufficient supporting information to enable the FCA4to assess the purpose and effect of the proposed regulatory provision

REC 3.26.6G01/04/2013

1In determining whether a UK RIE3has provided sufficient supporting information, the FCA4may have regard to the extent to which the information includes:44(1) 1clearly expressed reasons for the proposed regulatory provision; and(2) 1an appropriately detailed assessment of the likely costs and benefits of the proposed regulatory provision.

REC 3.26.7R01/04/2013

1A UK RIE3must provide such additional information in connection with a notice under section 300B(1) of the Act as the FCA4may reasonably require.344

REC 3.26.8G01/04/2013

1Where a UK RIE3wishes to give notice to the FCA4for the purposes of section 300B(1) of the Act, it should in the first instance inform its usual supervisory contact at the FCA.43444

REC 3.26.9G01/04/2013

1The FCA4expects that an advanced draft of any consultation document a UK RIE3intends to publish in connection with a proposed regulatory provision could provide some or all of the information described in REC 3.26.5 R.3434

EG 19.14.101/03/2016

1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Money Laundering Regulations. The Money Laundering Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, obligations to apply customer due diligence measures and conduct ongoing monitoring of business relationships on designated types of business.

EG 19.14.201/03/2016

1The FCA is responsible for monitoring and enforcing compliance with the Regulations not only by authorised firms who are within the Money Laundering Regulations’ scope, but also by what the Regulations describe as “Annex I financial institutions”. These are businesses which are not otherwise authorised by us but which carry out certain of the activities listed in Annex I of the Banking Consolidation Directive28, now Annex I of the CRD. The activities include lending (e.g. forfaiters

EG 19.14.301/03/2016

1The Money Laundering Regulations add to the range of options available to the FCA for dealing with anti-money laundering failures. These options are: • to prosecute both authorised firms and Annex I financial institutions;to take regulatory action against authorised firms for failures which breach the FCA'srules and requirements (for example, under Principle 3 or SYSC 3.2.6R or SYSC 6.1.1R); and• to impose civil penalties on both authorised firms and Annex I financial institutions

EG 19.14.401/03/2016

1This means that there will be situations in which the FCA has powers to investigate and take action under both the Act and the Money Laundering Regulations. The FCA will consider all the circumstances of the case when deciding what action to take and, if it is appropriate to notify the subject about the investigation, will in doing so inform them about the basis upon which the investigation is being conducted and what powers it is using. The FCA will adopt the approach outlined

EG 19.14.501/03/2016

1The Money Laundering Regulations also provide investigation powers that the FCA can use when investigating whether breachesof the Regulations have taken place. These powers include: • the power to require information from, and attendance of, relevant and connected persons (regulation 37); and• powers of entry and inspection without or under warrant (regulations 38 and 39).The use of these powers will be limited to those cases in which the FCAexpects to take action under the

EG 19.14.601/03/2016

1The FCA will adopt a risk-based approach to its enforcement of the Money Laundering Regulations. Failures in anti-money laundering controls will not automatically result in disciplinary sanctions, although enforcement action is more likely where a firm has not taken adequate steps to identify its money laundering risks or put in place appropriate controls to mitigate those risks, and failed to take steps to ensure that controls are being effectively implemented.

EG 19.14.701/03/2016

1However, the Money Laundering Regulations say little about the way in which investigation and sanctioning powers should be used, so the FCA has decided to adopt enforcement and decision making procedures which are broadly akin to those under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described below.

SUP 10C.9.1G07/03/2016

SUP 10C.9 deals with how the FCA's senior management regime for relevant authorised persons interacts with the PRA's one.

SUP 10C.9.2G07/03/2016

Both the FCA and the PRA may specify a function as a designated senior management function in relation to a PRA-authorised person.

SUP 10C.9.3G07/03/2016

If a person's job for a firm involves performing: (1) an FCA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to the FCA for approval;(2) a PRA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to the PRA for approval;(3) both an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function, the firm should apply to both the FCA and the PRA for approval (the purpose of SUP 10C.9 is to cut down the need for this sort of dual a

SUP 10C.9.4G07/03/2016

The FCA is under a duty, under section 59A of the Act (Specifying functions as controlled functions: supplementary), to exercise the power to specify any senior management function as an FCA controlled function in a way that it considers will minimise the likelihood that approvals need to be given by both the FCA and the PRA for the performance by a person of senior management functions in relation to the same PRA-authorised person.

SUP 10C.9.5G07/03/2016

The FCA and PRA have coordinated their approved person regimes to reduce the amount of overlap.

SUP 10C.9.8R07/03/2016

A person (referred to as ‘A’ in this rule) is not performing an FCA governing function (referred to as the ‘particular’ FCA governing function in this rule) in relation to a PRA-authorised person (referred to as ‘B’ in this rule), at a particular time, if:(1) A has been approved by the PRA to perform any PRA-designated senior management function in relation to B;(2) throughout the whole of the period between the time of the PRA approval in (1) and the time in question, A has been

SUP 10C.9.9G07/03/2016

Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced

1Example	Whether FCA approval required	Whether PRA approval required	Comments
(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.	No. He is not treated as performing the executive director function.	Yes	Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role.
(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because the approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body.	No	Yes	The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time.
(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director.	Yes, to perform the executive director function.	Yes	SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function.
(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director.	No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.	Yes	Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.
(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer.	Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function applies.	Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.	SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function.
(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director.	Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function applies.	Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.	When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person.
(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm.	Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function applies.	Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.	SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director.
(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director.	No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function. Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function. Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4))	Yes, on A’s first appointment.	When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed. The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function.
(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director.	No	Yes	The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management function after the PRA's first approval.
(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up his old job when he comes back.	No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave.	Yes	SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function just because A goes on temporary sick leave.
(11) A is appointed to be chairman of the governing body and chairman of the nomination committee at the same time.	No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function.	Yes, on first appointment.	Being chairman of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies.
2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a third-country relevant authorised person. A is also an executive director of that firm’s UK branch.	No. A is not treated as performing the executive3 director function.	Yes	A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.
Note: The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA rulebook called ‘Senior Management Functions’

SUP 10C.9.11G07/03/2016

The PRA cannot give its approval for the performance of a PRA-designated senior management function without the consent of the FCA. The firm does not need to apply to the FCA for that consent.

SUP 10C.9.12G07/03/2016

Under section 59B of the Act (Role of FCA in relation to PRA decisions), the FCA may arrange with the PRA that, in agreed cases, the PRA may give approval without obtaining the consent of the FCA. No such arrangements are currently in force.

RCB 2.2.2G01/04/2013

RCB 3.6.5 D sets out the methods the issuer may use to send the form to the FCA.

RCB 2.2.3D01/04/2013

Until the application has been determined by the FCA, the issuer must inform the FCA of any significant change to the information given in the application immediately it becomes aware of that change.

RCB 2.2.4G01/04/2013

The form and content of the application documentation is a matter for direction by the FCA, which will determine what additional information and documentation may be required on a case-by-case basis.

RCB 2.2.5G01/04/2013

The FCA will not treat the application as having been received until it receives the registration fee (see RCB 5.2.5 R) and all relevant documentation requested by the FCA before its on-site review of the application.1

RCB 2.2.6D01/04/2013

The issuer must ensure that a director or a1senior manager of the issuer verifies the application by confirming on the FCA's form that the issuer has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports as required by RCB 2.3.16 D and is satisfied that:(1) the information provided in the application is correct and complete; and (2) the arrangements relating to the covered bond or programme will comply with the requirements in the RCB Regulations and in RCB.

RCB 2.2.7G01/04/2013

The FCA expects the issuer to be able to justify any reliance it places on advice or reports which are not reasonably contemporaneous with the confirmation the senior manager gives in relation to compliance with the requirements of the RCB Regulations and RCB.

RCB 2.2.8D01/04/2013

The issuer must ensure that the senior manager, who verifies the application for registration under this section, gives their consent to the FCA displaying their confirmation of compliance with the relevant requirements on the FCA's website.

IFPRU 4.2.2G01/01/2014

Where the FCA has published evidence showing that a well-developed and long-established residential property market is present in that territory with loss rates which do not exceed the limits in article 125(3) of the EU CRR (Exposures fully and completely secured by mortgages on residential property), a firm does not need to meet the condition in article 125(2)(b) of the EU CRR in order to consider an exposure, or any part of an exposure, as fully and completely secured for the

IFPRU 4.2.3R01/04/2014

For the purposes of articles 124(2) and 126(2) of the EU CRR, and in addition to the conditions in those regulations, a firm may only treat exposures as fully and completely secured by mortgages on commercial immovable property located in the UK1 in line with article 126 where annual average losses stemming from lending secured by mortgages on commercial property in the UK did not exceed 0.5% of risk-weighted exposure amounts over a representative period. A firm must calculate

IFPRU 4.2.5G01/01/2014

The FCA confirms that, in relation to the concessionary treatment set out in article 119(5) of the EU CRR, there are no financial institutions currently authorised and supervised by it (other than those to which the EU CRR applies directly) that are subject to prudential requirements that it considers to be comparable in terms of robustness to those applied to institutions under the EU CRR.[Note: article 119(5) of the EU CRR]

IFPRU 4.2.6G01/01/2014

Where an exposure is denominated in a currency other than the euro, the FCA expects a firm to use appropriate and consistent exchange rates to determine compliance with relevant thresholds in the EU CRR. Accordingly, a firm should calculate the euro equivalent value of the exposure for the purposes of establishing compliance with the aggregate monetary limit of €1 million for retail exposures using a set of exchange rates the firm considers to be appropriate. The FCA expects a

IFPRU 4.2.7G01/01/2014

The FCA considers an Ijara mortgage to be an example of an exposure to a tenant under a property leasing transaction concerning residential property under which the firm is the lessor and the tenant has an option to purchase. Accordingly, the FCA expects exposures to Ijara mortgages to be subject to all of the requirements that apply to exposures secured by mortgages on residential property, including in respect of periodic property revaluation (see articles 124 and 125 of the

IFPRU 4.2.8G01/01/2014

The FCA expects a firm with exposure to a lifetime mortgage to inform the FCA of the difference in the own funds requirements on those exposures under the EU CRR and the credit risk capital requirement that would have applied under BIPRU 3.4.56A R.The FCA will use this information in its consideration of relevant risks in its supervisory assessment of the firm (see articles 124, 125 and 208 of the EU CRR).

IFPRU 4.2.9G01/01/2014

When determining the portion of a past due item that is secured, the FCA expects the secured portion of an exposure covered by a mortgage indemnity product that is eligible for credit risk mitigation purposes under Part Three, Title II, Chapter 4 of the EU CRR (Credit risk mitigation) to qualify as an eligible guarantee (see article 129(2) of the EU CRR).

IFPRU 4.2.10G01/01/2014

When determining whether exposures in the form of units or shares in a CIU are associated with particularly high risk, the FCA expects the following features would be likely to give rise to such risk:(1) an absence of external credit assessment of such CIU from an ECAI recognised under article 132(2) of the EU CRR (Items representing securitisation positions) and where such CIU has specific features (such as high levels of leverage or lack of transparency) that prevent it from

IFPRU 4.2.11G01/01/2014

The FCA expects a firm's assessment of whether types of exposure referred to in article 128(3) of the EU CRR are associated with particularly high risk to include consideration of exposures arising out of a venture capital business (whether the firm itself carries on the venture capital business or not) . The FCA considers "venture capital business" to include the business of carrying on any of the following:(1) advising on investments, managing investments, arranging (bringing

IFPRU 4.2.12G01/01/2014

Until such time as the European Commission adopts implementing technical standards drafted by the European Supervisory Authorities Joint Committee to specify for all ECAIs the relevant credit assessments of the ECAI that correspond to credit quality steps, the FCA expects a firm to continue to have regard to the table mapping the credit assessments of certain ECAIs to credit quality steps produced in accordance with regulation 22(3) of the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006.

SUP 15.5.1R07/03/2016

A firm must give the FCA4 reasonable advance notice of a change in:1010(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate); (2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the United Kingdom or with or for clients in the United Kingdom.

SUP 15.5.4R07/03/2016

A firm must give the FCA4 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following addresses, and give details of the new address and the date of the change:1010(1) the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom; (2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address.

SUP 15.5.5R07/03/2016

A firm must give the FCA4 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following telephone numbers, and give details of the new telephone number and the date of the change:131010(1) the number of the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom;(2) in the case of an overseas firm, the number of its head office.3

SUP 15.5.6G07/03/2016

SUP 15.5.4 R and SUP 15.5.5 R mean that a firm should notify the FCA4 of a change in telephone number even if the address of the office is not changing.3131010

SUP 15.5.7R07/03/2016

A firm must notify the FCA4 immediately if it becomes subject to or ceases to be subject to the supervision of any overseas regulator (including a Home State regulator). 1010

SUP 15.5.8G07/03/2016

The FCA's4 approach to the supervision of a firm is influenced by the regulatory regime and any legislative or foreign provisions to which that firm, including its branches, is subject. 1010

SUP 15.5.9R07/03/2016

(1) 2A firm other than:55(a) a credit union; or5(b) an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity;5must submit any notice under6SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4Rand10SUP 15.5.5 R3 by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R online at the FCA's4 website.101010(2) A credit union or an FCA-authorised person with permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activity (other than a firm with only an interim permission to which the modifications

SUP 15.5.10G07/03/2016

(1) If the FCA's4 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA4 will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.5.9R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.10101010(2) Where 10SUP 15.5.9R (2)10 applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.

SUP 10A.6.1G07/03/2016

(1) Every firm will have one or more persons responsible for directing its affairs. These persons will be performing the FCA governing functions and will be required to be FCA-approved persons unless the application provisions in SUP 10A.1, or the particular description of an FCA controlled function, provide otherwise. For example, each director of a company incorporated under the Companies Acts will perform an FCA governing function. However, if the firm is a PRA-authorised person,

SUP 10A.6.10G01/04/2013

A director can be a body corporate and may accordingly require approval as an FCA-approved person in the same way as a natural person may require approval.

SUP 10A.6.11G07/03/2016

(1) The director function applies in relation to a PRA-authorised person, as set out below3. 2(2) 3For a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer3, the FCAdirector function may apply if the person carrying out the function is not approved to carry out a PRA controlled function or the other conditions in SUP 10A.11.12R (minimising overlap with the PRA approved persons regime) are not satisfied.2

SUP 10A.6.16G01/04/2013

(1) This paragraph explains the basis on which the director function and the non-executive director function are applied to persons who have a position with the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company under SUP 10A.6.8 R or SUP 10A.6.13 R.(2) The basic position is set out in SUP 10A.3.4 G. As is the case with all controlled functions, SUP 10A.6.8 R and SUP 10A.6.13 R are subject to the overriding provisions in SUP 10A.3.1 R, which sets out the requirements of section 59(1)

SUP 10A.6.19G01/04/2013

For a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, the FCA would not normally expect the overseas chief executive of the firm as a whole to be FCA-approved for this function where there is a senior manager under him with specific responsibility for those activities of the branch which are subject to the UKregulatory system. In some circumstances, the person within the firm responsible for UK operations may, if the function is likely to enable him to exercise significant influence

SUP 10A.6.21G01/04/2013

Note that a body corporate may be a chief executive. If so, it will need to be approved (if the firm in question is an FCA-authorised person) to perform the chief executive function.

SUP 10A.6.24G01/04/2013

Any apportionment referred to in SUP 10A.6.23R (3)(b) will have taken place under SYSC 2.1.1 R or SYSC 4.3.1 R and SYSC 4.4.3 R. The FCA may ask to see details of the apportionment but will not require, as a matter of course, a copy of the material which records this (see SYSC 2.2).

SUP 10A.6.25G01/04/2013

The effect of SUP 10A.1.17 R is that regulated activity in SUP 10A.6.23 R (and elsewhere) is to be taken as not including an activity that is a non-mainstream regulated activity. Therefore, a partner whose only regulated activities are incidental to his professional services, in a partnership whose principal purpose is to carry on other than regulated activities, need not be an FCA-approved person. What amounts to the principal purpose of the firm is a matter of fact in each case

SUP 10A.6.33G01/04/2013

Typically a non-directive friendly Society will appoint a “committee of management” to direct its affairs. However, the governing arrangements may be informal and flexible. If this is the case, the FCA would expect the society to resolve to give responsibility for the carrying on of regulated activities to one individual who is appropriate in all the circumstances. That individual may, for example, have the title of chief executive or similar. The individual would have to be an

SUP 10A.6.34G07/03/2016

In practice, the FCA expects that most non-directive friendly societies will be PRA-authorised persons. Where that is the case, the small friendly society function apply as set out in SUP 10A.6.1G above3.

IFPRU 3.2.4G01/01/2014

For the purposes of article 4(1)(126) (Definition of synthetic holding) and Part Two (Own funds) of the EUCRR, the FCA considers the holdings described in IFPRU 3.2.5 G to be examples of indirect or synthetic holdings by an IFPRU investment firm of own common equity tier 1 instruments.

IFPRU 3.2.7R01/01/2014

A firm must report to the FCA all connected transactions described in IFPRU 3.2.6 R at least one month in advance of entry into the relevant transaction and identify each relevant transaction with sufficient detail to allow the FCA to evaluate it.

IFPRU 3.2.8R01/01/2014

A firm must demonstrate to the FCA that any additional tier 1 instrument or tier 2 instrument issued by it that is governed by the law of a third country is by its terms capable, as part of a resolution of the firm, of being written down or converted into a common equity tier 1 instrument of the firm to the same extent as an equivalent own funds instrument issued under the law of the UK.

IFPRU 3.2.9R01/01/2014

A firm must include, in the materials it provides to the FCA under IFPRU 3.2.8 R, a properly reasoned legal opinion from an individual appropriately qualified in the relevant third country.

IFPRU 3.2.10R01/01/2014

A firm must notify the FCA of the following:(1) its intention; or(2) the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm, but is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm;to issue a capital instrument that it believes will qualify under the EUCRR as own funds other than a common equity tier 1 capital at least one month before the intended date of issue.

IFPRU 3.2.11R01/01/2014

A firm does not have to give notice under IFPRU 3.2.10 R if the capital instrument is: (1) an ordinary share; or(2) a debt instrument issued under a debt securities programme under which the firm or group member has previously issued and the firm has notified the FCA, in accordance with IFPRU 3.2.10 R, prior to a previous issuance under the programme.

IFPRU 3.2.13R01/01/2014

A firm must notify the FCA in writing, no later than the date of issue of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to issue a capital instrument described in IFPRU 3.2.11 R.

IFPRU 3.2.15R01/01/2014

The firm must promptly notify the FCA of any change to the intended date of issue, amount of issue, type of investors, type of own funds or any other feature of the capital instrument to that previously notified to the FCA under IFPRU 3.2.10 R or IFPRU 3.2.13 R.

IFPRU 3.2.16R01/01/2014

A firm must notify the FCA of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to amend or otherwise vary the terms of any own funds instrument included in its own funds or the own funds of its consolidated group at least one month before the intended date of such amendment or other variation.

IFPRU 3.2.17R01/01/2014

A firm must notify the FCA of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to carry out any of the actions described in article 77 of the EUCRR (Conditions for reducing own funds) for an own funds instrument.

FIT 1.3.1G07/03/2016

The FCA1will have regard to a number of factors when assessing the fitness and propriety of a person to perform a particular controlled function, as more particularly described in FIT 2 (Main assessment criteria).111

FIT 1.3.1AG07/03/2016

1The FCA would expect firms that are required to assess the fitness and propriety of staff being assessed under FIT to have regard to substantially the same factors as those outlined in FIT 2.

FIT 1.3.1BG07/03/2016

1In the FCA's view, the most important considerations will be the person’s:(1) honesty, integrity and reputation;(2) competence and capability; and(3) financial soundness.

FIT 1.3.2G07/03/2016

In assessing fitness and propriety, the FCA1 will also take account of the activities of the firm for which the controlled function is or is to be performed, the permission held by that firm and the markets within which it operates.1

FIT 1.3.3G07/03/2016

The criteria listed in FIT 2.1 to FIT 2.3 are guidance and will be applied in general terms when the FCA1 is determining a person's fitness and propriety. It would be impossible to produce a definitive list of all the matters which would be relevant to a particular determination. A relevant authorised person assessing the fitness and propriety of staff being assessed under FIT should be guided by substantially the same criteria in FIT 2.1 to FIT 2.3 (to the extent applicable to

FIT 1.3.4G07/03/2016

If a matter comes to the FCA's1 attention which suggests that the person might not be fit and proper, the FCA1 will take into account how relevant and how important it is. In the same way, if a matter comes to the attention of a relevant authorised person which suggests that any staff being assessed under FIT might not be fit and proper, the firm should take into account how relevant and how important that matter is. 111

FIT 1.3.4AG07/03/2016

1A relevant authorised person assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person is required to notify the FCA under section 63(2A) of the Act if it forms the opinion that there are grounds on which the FCA could withdraw its approval (see SUP 10C.14.24R). In discharging its obligation to notify the FCA, a relevant authorised person should take into account how relevant and how important the matter is that comes to its attention which suggests an approved person

FIT 1.3.5G07/03/2016

During the application process for a controlled function, the 1FCA1 may discuss the assessment of the candidate's fitness and propriety informally with the firm making the application and may retain any notes of those discussions.11

EG 19.26.101/03/2016

1The FCA has information gathering and sanctioning powers under the Act which are applicable to breaches of EMIR requirements by authorised persons or recognised bodies. The OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation adds to the powers available to the FCA for dealing with breaches of EMIR requirements and sets out information gathering and sanctioning powers enabling the FCA to investigate and take action for breaches of the EMIR requirements

EG 19.26.201/03/2016

1The FCA may require a non-authorised counterparty that is subject to obligations under EMIR to provide specified information or specified documents so that it can verify whether the non-authorised counterparty has complied with EMIR. The FCA also has the power to require a person to provide specified information or specified documents so that it can verify whether the person is subject to EMIR. The FCA may require the above information to be provided in such form, or to be verified

EG 19.26.301/03/2016

(1) 1The FCA has the power to publish a statement or impose a financial penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on: (a) a financial counterparty who is not an authorised person, a non- financial counterparty or any other person who has breached an EMIR requirement or regulation 7 or 8 of the OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation; (b) a financial counterparty who is an authorised person who has breached regulation 8 of the

EG 19.26.401/03/2016

1As the power to impose penalties for contravention of an EMIR requirement or regulations 7 or 8 of the OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation mirrors similar powers to that the FCA has under the Act, the FCA will adopt procedures and policies in relation to the use of those powers akin to those it has adopted under the Act, subject to EG 19.26.3(2).

EG 19.26.501/03/2016

1The FCA will use the sanctioning powers where it is appropriate to do so and with regard to the relevant factors listed in DEPP 6.2.1G and DEPP 6.4. In determining the appropriate level of financial penalty, the FCA will have regard to the principles set out in DEPP 6.5, DEPP 6.5A, DEPP 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.

EG 19.26.601/03/2016

1Where the FCA proposes or decides to take action to publish a statement or impose a financial penalty referred to in EG 19.26.3, it will give the person concerned a warning notice or a decision notice respectively. In the case of a public statement, the warning notice or decision notice will also set out the terms of the statement. In the case of a financial penalty, the warning notice or decision notice will also state the amount of the penalty. On receiving a warning notice,

EG 19.26.701/03/2016

1If it is proposing to publish a statement or impose a penalty under the OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation, the FCA's decision maker will be the RDC. The RDC will make its decisions following the procedure set out in DEPP 3.2 or where appropriate, DEPP 3.3.

EG 19.26.801/03/2016

1Sections 393 and 394 of the Act apply to notices referred to in this section. See DEPP 2.4 (Third party rights and access to FCA material).

EG 19.26.901/03/2016

1In relation to the notices in this section, the FCA will, subject to EG 19.26.3(2), apply the approach to publicity that is outlined in EG 6.

REC 4.8.1G01/04/2013

A decision to: (1) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition) or (for RAPs) regulation 4 of the RAP regulations; or3(2) make a direction under section 296 (FCA's4powers to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations; or34(3) refuse to make a recognition order under section 290 (Recognition orders) or 290A (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision) or (for RAPs) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations32;is

REC 4.8.2G01/04/2013

The FCA's4 internal arrangements provide for any of these decisions to be taken at an appropriately senior level.4

REC 4.8.3G01/04/2013

In considering whether it would be appropriate to exercise the powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 3 or 4 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA4 will have regard to all relevant information and factors including:4(1) its guidance to recognised bodies;(2) the results of its routine supervision of the body concerned;(3) the extent to which the failure or likely failure to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements31may affect the statutory

REC 4.8.4G01/04/2013

In considering whether or not to make a recognition order, the FCA4 will have regard to all relevant information and factors, including its guidance to recognised bodies and applicants and the information provided by applicants. Details of the application processes and other guidance for applicants are set out in REC 5 and (for overseas applications) REC 6.4

REC 4.8.5G01/04/2013

The procedures laid down in section 298 of the Act and (for RAPs) regulation 5 of the RAP regulations3are summarised, with the FCA's4 guidance about the actions it proposes to take in following these procedures, in the tables4 at REC 4.8.9 G and REC 4.8.10 G respectively4.44

REC 4.8.6G01/04/2013

Before exercising its powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 3 or 4 of the RAP regulations3, the FCA4 will usually discuss its intention, and the basis for this, with the key individuals or other appropriate representatives of the recognised body. It will usually discuss its intention not to make a recognition order with appropriate representatives of the applicant.4

REC 4.8.9G01/04/2013

3Key steps in the section 298 procedure4

	The FCA 4 will: 4	Guidance
(1)	give written notice to theRIE 4 (or applicant); 4	The notice will state why the FCA 4 intends to take the action it proposes to take, and include an invitation to make representations, and the period within which representations should be made (unless subsequently extended by the FCA)4. 4


(2)4 4	receive representations from the RIE or applicant concerned;4 4	The FCA 4 will not usually consider oral representations without first receiving written representations from theRIE (or applicant)4. It will normally only hear oral representations from the RIE 4 on request. 4 4 4
(3)4 4	write promptly to RIE (or applicant)4 who requests the opportunity to make oral representations if it decides not to hear that person's representations; 4	The FCA 4 will indicate why it will not hear oral representations and the FCA 4 will allow the RIE (or applicant)4 further time to respond. 4 4 4
(4)4 4	have regard to representations made;
(5)4 4	(when it has reached its decision) notify the RIE 4 (or applicant) concerned in writing. 4
4

REC 4.8.10G01/04/2013

4For RAPs, key steps in the regulation 5 procedure

	The FCA will:	Guidance
(1)	give written notice to the RAP (or applicant);	The notice will state why the FCA intends to take the action it proposes to take, and include an invitation to make representations, and the date by which representations should be made.
(2)	take such steps as it considers reasonably practicable to bring the notice to the attention of the members of the RAP or of the applicant, as the case may be;	The FCA will also notify persons individually (as far as it considers it reasonably practicable to do so) if it considers that the action it proposes to take would affect them adversely in a way which would be different from its effect on other persons of the same class.
(3)	publish the notice so as to bring it to the attention of other persons likely to be affected;
(4)	receive representations from the RAP or applicant concerned, any member of the RAP or applicant, and any other person who is likely to be affected by the action the FCA proposes to take;	The FCA will not usually consider oral representations without first receiving written representations from the person concerned. It will normally only hear oral representations from the RAP (or applicant) itself or of a person whom it has notified individually, on request.
(5)	write promptly to any person who requests the opportunity to make oral representations if it decides not to hear that person's representations;	The FCA will indicate why it will not hear oral representations and the FCA will allow the person concerned further time to respond.
(6)	have regard to representations made;
(7)	(when it has reached its decision) notify the RAP (or applicant) concerned in writing;
(8)	(if it has decided to give a direction, or revoke or refuse to make a recognition order) take such steps as it considers reasonably practicable to bring its decision to the attention of members of the RAP or applicant and to other persons likely to be affected.	The FCA will usually give notice of its decision to the same persons and in the same manner as it gave notice of its intention to act.

EG 19.9.101/03/2016

1The FCA will exercise the power to make an electronic commerce activity direction on a case-by-case basis. When deciding whether to make a direction, the FCA will undertake an assessment of whether the circumstances of the particular case meet the policy conditions set out in regulation 6.

EG 19.9.201/03/2016

1On obtaining information concerning possible financial crime facilitated through or involving an incoming ECA provider, or detriment to UK markets or UK ECA recipients caused by the activities of an incoming ECA provider, the FCA will contact the relevant EEA regulator of the incoming ECA provider. The FCA would expect the relevant EEA regulator to consider the matter, investigate it where appropriate and keep the FCA informed about what action, if any, was being taken. The FCA

EG 19.9.301/03/2016

1However, there are likely to be circumstances in which the FCA will need to use the electronic commerce activity direction power. Examples could include where it was necessary to stop the behaviour complained of, or to make the continued provision of services by the incoming ECA provider conditional upon compliance with specified requirements. Overall, the FCA may use the direction power: (1) where: (a) the behaviour complained of was causing, or had the potential to cause,

EG 19.9.401/03/2016

1The question of whether the FCA decides to prevent or prohibit the incoming electronic commerce activity, or to make it subject to certain requirements (for example, compliance with specified rules), will depend on the overall circumstance of the case. A relevant consideration will be whether the FCA is satisfied that its concerns over the incoming electronic commerce activity can be adequately addressed through the imposition of a requirement, rather than a complete prohibition

EG 19.9.501/03/2016

1The FCA may consider that a case is urgent, in particular, where: (1) the information available to it indicates serious concerns about the incoming electronic commerce activity that need to be addressed immediately; and (2) circumstances indicate that it is appropriate to use the direction power immediately to prohibit the incoming electronic commerce activity, or to make the carrying on of the activity subject to specified requirements.

EG 19.9.601/03/2016

1The FCA will consider the full circumstances of the case when deciding whether exercising the direction power, without first taking the procedural steps set out in regulation 6, is an appropriate response to such concerns. The factors the FCA may consider include those listed in paragraph 19.9.4 of this guide. There may be other relevant factors.

EG 19.9.701/03/2016

1The FCA's decision to make, revoke or vary an electronic commerce activity direction will generally be taken by the RDC Chairman. However, this is subject to two exceptions. (1) In an urgent case and if the Chairman is not available, the decision will be taken by an RDC Deputy Chairman and where possible, but subject to the need to act swiftly, one other RDC member. (2) If a provider who has been notified of the FCA's intention to make

EG 19.9.801/03/2016

1Where a provider must be given the opportunity to make representations in relation to a proposed direction or variation of a direction, the RDC Chairman will determine in each case the manner and the period within which those representations should be made. If the FCA decides to issue a direction or vary it at its own initiative, or if the FCA refuses an application to vary or revoke a direction, the person to whom the direction applies may refer the matter to the Tribunal.

EG 19.9.901/03/2016

1Regulation 10(8) of the ECD Regulations provides that if the FCA makes a direction, it may publish, in such manner as it considers appropriate, such information about the matter to which the direction relates as it considers appropriate in furtherance of any of the objectives referred to in paragraph of this guide. However, under Regulation 10(9), the FCA may not publish information relating to a direction if publication would, in the FCA's opinion, be unfair to the

EG 19.9.1001/03/2016

1When deciding what information, if any, to publish and the appropriate manner of publication, the FCA will consider the full circumstances of each case. The FCA anticipates that it will generally be appropriate to publish relevant details of a direction, in order to protect and inform consumers. However, in accordance with the Regulation 10(9) prohibition, it will not publish information if it considers that publication would be unfair to the provider or prejudicial to the interests

FEES App 1.2.1R01/04/2013

A registered society must pay to the FCA, in full and without deduction, the periodic fee applicable to it under Annex 1R for a financial year during which, or part of which, the society is registered, except as provided for in 1.2.5 R and 1.2.6 R.

FEES App 1.2.5BR01/04/2013

If a registered society fails to file an R by the date it is required to be filed:(1) the R used to determine the amount of the periodic fee payable by the registered society will be that shown in the R last filed with the FCA or its predecessor; and(2) the registered society must pay an administrative fee equal to the lower of the periodic fee payable by the registered society under Annex 1R for that year, and £250.

FEES App 1.2.6R01/04/2013

If a registered society ceases to be a registered society on or after 1 April in a particular financial year, but before an invoice for the periodic fee payable under 1.2.1 R for the financial year in which the society ceases to be a registered society has been issued by the FCA, the periodic fee payable by that registered society under 1.2.1 R is the amount of the periodic fee under Annex 1R for the immediately preceding financial year.

FEES App 1.2.8R01/04/2013

A registered society need not pay a periodic fee on the date which it is due under the relevant provision in these rules, if:(1) that date falls during a period during which circumstances of the sort set out in R(Emergencies) exist, and that registered society has reasonable grounds to believe that those circumstances impair its ability to pay the fee, in which case it must pay on or before the fifth business day after the end of that period; or(2) that date would otherwise

FEES App 1.2.10G01/04/2013

The FCA expects to issue invoices for periodic fees at least 30 days before the date on which they fall due. Accordingly, it will generally be the case that a registered society will have at least 30 days from the issue of the invoice before an administrative fee becomes payable, and at least 45 days before any interest becomes payable.

FEES App 1.2.11G01/04/2013

If a sponsoring body does not pay the required periodic fee for a set of by the due date, the rules will cease to be model rules and applications for the registration of societies that use the rules will be charged by the FCA as if the rules were a free draft.

FEES App 1.2.12G01/04/2013

If a sponsoring body wishes to change a set of model rules, it should supply a copy to the FCA indicating the proposed changes. No application fee is payable for such changes.

FEES App 1.2.13G01/04/2013

The FCA will not refund periodic fees in any circumstances.

SUP 11.9.1AR01/03/2014

6(1) A firm must notify the FCA that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person and ensure the following:454(a) where a firm has elected to report changes in close links on a monthly basis under SUP 11.9.5A R, the notification must be made in line with SUP 11.9.3BA R; and4(b) in any other case, the notification must be made by completing the Close Links Notification Form (see SUP 11.9.3B G) and must include the information in SUP 11.9.3D G.4(2) If a group includes

SUP 11.9.3-AG01/04/2013

6The FCA may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.9.1A R in order to satisfy itself that the firm continues to satisfy the threshold conditions (see SUP 2: Information gathering by the FCA and PRA on their own initiative).

SUP 11.9.3BG01/03/2014

6The Close Links Notification Form approved by the FCA for notifications under SUP 11.9.1A R, SUP 11.9.5A R may be found at the FCA website.4The Close Links Notification Form approved by the FCA for notifications under SUP 11.9.1AR (1)(b) may be found at the FCA website.45

SUP 11.9.3BAR01/03/2014

4The notification under SUP 11.9.1AR (1)(a) must be made electronically by completing the Close Links Monthly Report and submitting it through the relevant platform provided by the FCA.

SUP 11.9.4AR01/03/2014

6The firm must make a notification to the FCA under SUP 11.9.1A R:(1) as soon as reasonably practicable and no later than one month after it becomes aware that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person; or(2) where a firm has elected to report on a monthly basis, within fifteen business days of the end of each month by completing 4the Close Links Monthly Report for that month and must submit the group organisation chart on a quarterly basis unless there have

SUP 11.9.5AR01/04/2013

6(1) A firm elects to report changes in close links on a monthly basis by sending a written notice of election to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA.(2) An election to report changes in close links on a monthly basis will stand until such time as the firm gives its usual supervisory contact at the FCA at least one month's written notice of its intention to cease reporting changes in close links on a monthly basis.

SUP 11.9.6AG01/04/2013

6The FCA considers that monthly reporting of changes in close links will ordinarily only be appropriate for firms forming part of large groups.

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3Key steps in the section 298 procedure4