Related provisions for IPRU-INV 4.2.2
61 - 80 of 600 items.
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FCA5, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FCA's5 approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.3353533
The FCA5 will approve an acquisition or an increase in 3control if it is satisfied that the acquisition by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE (see section 301F(4) of the Act). 4The reference to any financial market is to be read as including a reference to any auction platform as a result of the RAP regulations.35333
Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions,
So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Solvency II Directive7 into the United Kingdom may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements in
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing
particulars) requires listing particulars submitted
to the FCA to contain all such information as investors
and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect
to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial
position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of
the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
(1) The listing
particulars must contain a summary that
complies with the requirements in section 87A(5) and (6) of the Act and PR 2.1.4 EU to PR 2.1.7 R (as if those requirements
applied to the listing particulars).(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply:(a) in relation to specialist
securities referred to in LR 4.1.1R (2);
or(b) if, in accordance with PR 2.1.3 R,
no summary would be required
in relation to the securities.
A request to the FCA to authorise the omission of specific
information in a particular case must:(1) be in writing from the issuer;(2) identify the specific information
concerned and the specific reasons for the omission; and(3) state why in the issuer's opinion
one or more of the grounds in section 82 of the Act applies.
Under section 169(1)(b) and section 131FA2 of the Act,
the FCA3 may
appoint an investigator to investigate any matter at the request of an overseas regulator or EEA regulator2. The powers of the investigator appointed by the FCA3 (referred to here as the 'FCA's3 investigator') include the power to require persons to
attend at a specified time and place and answer questions (the compulsory
interview power).333
Where the FCA3 appoints an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator or EEA regulator2 it may, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act,
direct him to permit a representative of that regulator to attend and take
part in any interviews conducted for the purposes of the investigation. The FCA3 may
only give a direction under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 if it is satisfied that any information
obtained by an overseas regulator or EEA
regulator2
Before making a direction under
section 169(7) or section
131FA2 the FCA3 will discuss and determine with the overseas
regulator or EEA regulator2 how this statement of policy will
apply to the conduct of the interview, taking into account all the circumstances
of the case. Amongst other matters, the FCA3 will at this stage determine the extent to which the representative
of the overseas regulator or EEA
regulator2 will be able to participate in
the interview. The overseas regulator
In addition, under section 290A
of the Act (Refusal of recognition
on ground of excessive regulatory provision), the FCA5 must refuse to make a recognition
order in relation to a body applying for recognition as a UK RIE if it appears to the FCA5 that an existing or proposed regulatory
provision of the applicant in connection with the applicant's
business as an investment exchange or the provision by the applicant of clearing facilitation services5 imposes, or will impose, an
An application should:(1) be
made in accordance with any directions the FCA5 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act or (for RAPs)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations;353355(2) in
the case of an application under section5 287 of the Act, 3be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory
provisions and
in the case of an application under section 287 of the Act information
required pursuant to sub-sections 287(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Act (see
1The
information required pursuant to sub-sections 287(c), (d) and (e) of the Act is:(1) a programme of operations which
includes the types of business the applicant proposes to undertake and the
applicant's proposed organisational structure;(2) particulars of the persons who
effectively direct the business and operations of the exchange; and(3) particulars of the ownership of
the exchange, and in particular the identity and scale of interests of the
persons who are in a position
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary) or (for an RAP applicant)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA5 may
require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the
applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely
importance for any application, the FCA5 will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's
information technology systems.55
1In
the case of an application to become a UK
RIE or an RAP3, under subsection 290(1B) of the Act and
(for an RAP applicant) regulation
2(8) of the RAP regulations3, the application must be determined by the FCA5 before the end of the period of six months beginning
with the date on which it receives the completed application.5
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition
order it will discuss its concerns with
the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to
make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G).
If the FCA5 decides
that it will not make a recognition order,
it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions
and revocation: procedure) or
(in the case of an RAP) regulation
5 of
1This chapter applies to an incoming EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer7 which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom under one of the Single Market Directives or the auction regulation8 and, therefore, qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.
SUP 14.6 (Cancelling qualification for authorisation), which sets out how to cancel qualification for authorisation under the Act, also applies to:(1) an incoming Treaty firm that qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act; and(2) a UCITS qualifier that is an authorised person under Schedule 5 to the Act; a UCITS qualifier should, however, refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G6 for full details of applicable rules and guidance.26
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order4 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Solvency II Directive;13 or13(aa) [deleted]1313(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the9CRD; or;494(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or4(d) authorised in Gibraltar under MiFID; or1010(e) authorised in Gibraltar under the UCITS Directive; or1210(f) authorised in Gibraltar
This chapter gives guidance on the Act and the EEA Passport Rights Regulations made under the Act, for an incoming EEA firm which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom and wishes to change the details of the branch or cross border services. [Note: An EEA bank is required to comply with the requirements set out in the directly applicable regulations adopted under Articles 35, 36 and 39 CRD.] 95
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Payment Services Regulations to assist it to exercise its functions under the Regulations in the most efficient and economic way. See DEPP 5, DEPP 6.7 and EG 5 for further information on the settlement process and the settlement discount scheme.
1The Payment Services Regulations apply section 169 of the Act which requires the FCA to publish a statement of policy on the conduct of certain interviews in response to requests from overseas regulators. For the purposes of the Payment Services Regulations the FCA will follow the procedures described in DEPP 7.
The circumstances in which the FCA5 may vary a firm'sPart 4A permission5 on
its own initiative or impose
a requirement on a firm5 under sections 55J or 55L5 of the Act include
where it appears to the FCA5 that:5555(1) one
or more of the threshold conditions for which the FCA is
responsible5 is or is likely to be no longer
satisfied; or(2) it
is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to meet any of the FCA's5 statutory objectives under the Act; or5335(3) a firm has
not
The FCA5 may also use its own-initiative powers5 for
enforcement purposes. EG 82 sets out in detail the FCA's5 powers under sections 55J and 55L of the Act5 and
the circumstances under which the FCA5 may use its own-initiative powers5 in this way, whether for enforcement purposes or as part of its
day to day supervision of firms.
This chapter provides additional guidance on when the FCA5 will use these powers for supervision purposes.55255555
The FCA5 may use its own-initiative powers5 only in respect of a firm's5Part 4A permission5; that is, a permission granted
to a firm under sections 55E or 55F5 of the Act (Giving
permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming
Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier,
this power applies only in relation to any top-up
permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers
under Part XIII of the Act in
relation to the permission
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But, when there is a cross-border element, for example because a customer is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
Even if a person concludes that he is not carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, he will need to ensure that he does not contravene other provisions of the Act that apply to unauthorised persons. These include the controls on financial promotion (section 21 (Financial promotion) of the Act) (see PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)), and on giving the impression that a person is authorised (section 24 (False claims to be authorised or exempt)).
Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United Kingdom
Needs Part 4A permission |
Schedule 3 EEA passport rights available |
Overseas persons exclusion available |
|
Registered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State) |
No |
Yes |
No |
Registered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border services |
No |
Yes |
Potentially available [see Note] |
Third country intermediary operating from branch in the UK |
Yes |
No |
No |
Third country intermediary providing services in (or into) the UK |
Yes unless overseas persons exclusion applies |
No |
Potentially available |
This does not, however, affect the firm'sauthorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Passporting)). |
|||
3For EEA-based intermediaries this table assumes that the insurance mediation activities are within the scope of the Insurance Mediation Directive. |
|||
In determining the location of an activity, and hence whether it is carried on in the United Kingdom, various factors need to be taken into account in turn, notably:(1) section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom);(2) the nature of the activity; and(3) the overseas persons exclusion (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Overseas persons)).
Section 418 of the Act extends the meaning that 'carry on regulated activity in the United Kingdom' would normally have by setting out additional cases in which a person who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is to be regarded as doing so. Each of the following cases thus amounts to carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom:(1) where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity in another EEA State in the exercise
Article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order (Overseas persons) provides a potential exclusion for persons with no permanent place of business in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are conducted or offers to conduct regulated activities are made. Where these persons carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom, they may be able to take advantage of the exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order. In general terms, these apply where
Within the legal constraints that apply, the appropriate regulator2 may pass on to a skilled person any information which it considers relevant to the skilled person's function. A skilled person, being a primary recipient under section 348 of the Act (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by Authority etc.), is bound by the confidentiality provisions in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) as regards confidential information
The limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplemental provisions) under which a person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations) to disclose information or produce a document subject to banking confidentiality (with exceptions); and (2) section 413 (Protected items), under which no person may be required to produce, disclose or allow the inspection
2In respect of the appointment of a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, a contractual or other requirement imposed on a person to keep any information confidential will not apply if:(1) the information is or may be relevant to anything required to be done as part of the skilled person's appointment under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act;(2) a firm
2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.
24Under section 55H(3) of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person), if an FCA-authorised person applies to the FCA, the FCA may cancel its Part 4A permission. Cancellation applies to a firm's entire Part 4A permission, that is to every activity and every specified investment and not to the individual elements such as specified investments. Changes to the individual elements of a permission would require a variation.
Under section 39824 of the Act (Misleading the FCA or PRA: residual cases),24 it is an offence, in purported compliance with a requirement imposed by or under the Act (including the directions in SUP 6.4.5 D), for a person to knowingly or recklessly give the regulator24 information that is false or misleading. If necessary, a firm should take appropriate professional advice when supplying information required by the regulator(s).24 An insurer, for example, may ask an actuary to
A firm which is applying for cancellation ofPart 4A permission24 and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the appropriate regulator24 of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.24 These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).2424
If an application for cancellation of a firm'sPart 4A permission has been granted and a firm's status as an authorised person has been withdrawn (see SUP 6.5) it will remain subject to certain investigative and enforcement powers as a former authorised person. These include:2424(1) information gathering and investigation powers in Part XI of the Act (Investigation gathering and investigations) (seeEG 3 (Use of information gathering and investigation powers)6);6(2) powers to apply
However, the following powers may not be used24 against former authorised persons:24(1) powers to take disciplinary action against firms by publishing statements of misconduct under section 205 of the Act (Public censure) or imposing financial penalties under section 206(1) of the Act (Financial penalties); and(2) the power to require firms to make restitution under section 384 of the Act (Power of FCA or PRA24 to require restitution).24
(1) Under section 55V(1)24of the Act (Determination of applications), the relevant regulator24 has six months to consider a completed application.2424(2) If the relevant regulator24 receives an application which is incomplete, that is, where information or a document required as part of the application is not provided, section 55V(2) of the Act requires the relevant regulator24 to determine the incomplete application within 12 months of the initial receipt of the application.2424(3)
Each of these aspects of the definition is considered in greater detail in PERG 9.4 (Collective investment scheme (section 235 of the Act)) to PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)). Although the definition has a number of elements, the FCA considers that it requires an overall view to be taken of the body corporate. This is of particular importance in relation to the investment condition (see PERG 9.6.3 G and PERG 9.6.4 G (The
The FCA understands that the aim of the definition in section 236 of the Act is to include any body corporate which, looked at as a whole, functions as an open-ended investment vehicle. The definition operates against a background that there is a wide range of different circumstances in which any particular body corporate can be established and operated. For example, the definition applies to bodies corporate wherever they are formed. So, in the application of the definition to
For a body corporate formed outside the United Kingdom, there is an additional issue as to how the applicable corporate law and the definition of open-ended investment company in the Act relate to one another. The FCA understands this to operate as follows. The term 'body corporate' is defined in section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation) as including 'a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom'. So, whether or not any particular
This exemption covers three6distinct situations. Article 16(1) applies to all exempt persons where they make financial promotions for the purpose of their exempt activities. These persons would include appointed representatives (except appointed representatives to whom the exemption in article 16(1A) applies; see PERG 8.12.12A G),6recognised investment exchanges, recognised clearing houses, recognised auction platforms5 and those who are able to take advantage of the Exemption
6Article 16(1A) applies to non-real time financial promotions and solicited real time financial promotions made:(1) by an appointed representative who is carrying on an activity to which sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply as a result of section 39(1D) of the Act; and(2) for the purposes of the appointed representative's business of carrying on a controlled activity which is also a regulated activity to which sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act
Article 16 (2) applies to unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an appointed representative in carrying on the business:(1) for which his principal has accepted responsibility for the purposes of section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives); and(2) in relation to which the appointed representative is exempt under section 39.In addition, the financial promotion may only be made in the circumstances in which it could be made by the appointed representative'sprincipal
The purpose of these 1exemptions1 is to ensure that, subject to certain conditions, the restriction in section 21 of the Act does not apply to those who merely transport the financial promotions of other persons. Obvious examples here are postal and Internet service providers, courier companies and telecommunications companies. PERG 8.6.5 G explains that such persons may not be regarded as communicating a financial promotion simply because they have distributed it. Article 18
Financial promotions made only to or directed only at certain types of person who are sophisticated enough to understand the risks involved are exempt. These are:(1) authorised persons;(2) exempt persons (where the financial promotion relates to a controlled activity which is a regulated activity for which the person is exempt);(3) governments and local authorities; and(4) persons whose ordinary business involves carrying on a controlled activity of the kind to which the financial
The broad scope of the restriction in section 21 of the Act will inevitably mean that it will, from time to time, apply to journalists and others who make their living from commenting on news including financial affairs (such as broadcasters). This is liable to happen when such persons offer share tips or recommend the use of a particular firm for investment purposes. Such tips or recommendations are likely to amount to inducements to engage in investment activity.
The first part of the exemption (referred to in PERG 8.12.34G (1)) specifically precludes any form of written communication. However, the FCA understands that the Treasury did not intend to prohibit the use of written words in the form of subtitling. These may be an aid to those with hearing difficulties or to interpret a foreign language, or the use of captions which supplement a spoken communication by highlighting aspects of it without introducing anything new. The FCA cannot
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 of:35(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(aa) a significant breach of any requirement imposed by the CCA or by regulations or an order made under the CCA (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies), but any notification under (aa) is required to be made only to the FCA; or 14(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately if:(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, competition authority,
3SUP 15.3.23 D to SUP 15.3.25 D are given in relation to the exercise of the powers of the Society and of the Council generally, with a view to achieving the objective of enabling the appropriate regulator35to:35(1) comply with its general duty under section 314 of the Act (Regulators’35 general duty);35(2) determine whether underwriting agents, or approved persons acting for them or on their behalf, are complying with the requirements imposed on them by or under the Act;(3) enforce
3The Society must inform the appropriate regulator35 if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings relating to apparent breaches:35(1) of the Act or requirements made under the Act, including the threshold conditions or the Principles or other rules, by an underwriting agent; or(2) of the Statements of Principle by an individual or other person who carries out controlled functions for or on behalf of an underwriting agent.
15Changes that the FCA would expect to be notified of under SUP 15.3.26 R include:(1) an AIFM being appointed to manage another AIF;(2) the appointment of a different depositary for an AIF the AIFM manages; and(3) the appointment of any new senior personnel if the AIFM is not required to apply for the FCA's approval for that appointment under section 59 of the Act.
19A full-scope UK AIFM must notify the FCA of material changes under SUP 15.3.26 R in the following manner:(1) for the management of a new AIF or a new investment compartment of an AIF, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6A R; (2) for changes of senior personnel whose appointment is not required to be approved by the FCA under section 59 of the Act, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6B R; and(3) for all other material changes, by using the form in SUP 15 Annex 6C R .
The Act does not contain any definition of the expressions ‘invitation’ or ‘inducement’, leaving them to their natural meaning. The ordinary dictionary entries for ‘invitation’ and ‘inducement’ offer several possible meanings to the expressions. An ‘invitation’ is capable of meanings ranging from merely asking graciously or making a request to encouraging or soliciting. The expression ‘inducement’ is given meanings ranging from merely bringing about to prevailing upon or persuading.
The Treasury, responding to consultation on the draft Financial Promotion Order, stated its intention that only communications containing a degree of incitement would amount to ‘inducements’ and that communications of purely factual information would not. This is provided the facts are presented in such a way that they do not also amount to an invitation or inducement. This was made clear both in the Treasury’s consultation document on financial promotion and during the passage
The FCA recognises that the matter cannot be without doubt. However, it is the FCA view that the context in which the expressions ‘invitation’ or ‘inducement’ are used clearly suggests that the purpose of section 21 is to regulate communications which have a promotional element. This is because they are used as restrictions on the making of financial promotions which are intended to have a similar effect to restrictions on advertising and unsolicited personal communications in
The FCA considers that it is appropriate to apply an objective test to decide whether a communication is an invitation or an inducement. In the FCA's view, the essential elements of an invitation or an inducement under section 21 are that it must both have the purpose or intent of leading a person to engage in investment activity and be promotional in nature. So it must seek, on its face, to persuade or incite the recipient to engage in investment activity. The objective test
Merely asking a person if they wish to enter into an agreement with no element of persuasion or incitement will not, in the FCA's view, be an invitation under section 21. For example, the FCA does not consider an invitation to have been made where:(1) a trustee or nominee receives an offer document of some kind and asks the beneficial owner whether he wishes it to be accepted or declined;(2) a person such as a professional adviser enquires whether or not his client would be willing
An inducement may often be followed by an invitation or vice versa (in which case both communications will be subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act). An inducement may be described as a link in a chain where the chain is intended to lead ultimately to an agreement to engage in investment activity. But this does not mean that all the links in the chain will be an inducement or that every inducement will be one to engage in investment activity. Only those that are
Links on a website may take different forms. Some will be inducements. Some of these will be inducements under section 21 and others not. Links which are activated merely by clicking on a name or logo will not be inducements. The links may be accompanied by or included within a narrative or, otherwise, referred to elsewhere on the site. Whether or not such narratives or references are inducements will depend upon the extent to which they may seek to persuade or incite persons
Under section 296 of the Act (FCA's4 power to give directions) and (for RAPs) under regulation 3 of the RAP regulations3, the FCA4 has the power to give directions to a recognised body to take specified steps 1in order to secure its compliance with the recognised body requirements. In the case of a UK RIE (including one which operates an RAP) 3those steps may include granting the FCA4 access to the UK RIE's premises for the purposes of inspecting those premises or any documents
The FCA4 is likely to exercise its power under section 296 of the Act or regulation 3 of the RAP regulations3 if it considers that:4(1) there has been, or was likely to be, a failure to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements31which has serious consequences; (2) compliance with the direction would ensure that 1one or more of the recognised body requirements is3 satisfied; and(3) the recognised body is capable of complying with the direction.
Under section 298(7) of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure), and (for RAPs) regulation 5(7) of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA4 need not follow the consultation procedure set out in the rest of section 298 (see REC 4.8) or may cut short that procedure, if it considers it reasonably necessary to do so. For RAPs, the FCA need not follow the procedure set out in regulation 5 of the RAP regulations or may cut short the procedure, if it considers it essential to do so.44
1Under sections 359 (Petitions) and 367 (Winding up Petitions) of the Act, a company or partnership is deemed to be unable to pay its debts if it is in default on an obligation to pay a sum due and payable under an agreement where the making or performance of the agreement constitutes or is part of a regulated activity which the company or partnership is carrying on.
1The FCA would not ordinarily petition for an administration order unless it believes that the company or partnership is, or is likely to become, insolvent. Similarly, the FCA would not ordinarily petition for a compulsory winding up order solely on the ground of inability to pay debts (as provided in the Act), unless it believes that the company or partnership is or is likely to be insolvent.
1While a default on a single agreement of the type mentioned in paragraph 13.3.2 is, under the Act, a presumption of an inability to pay debts, the FCA will consider the circumstances surrounding the default. In particular, the FCA will consider whether: (1) the default is the subject of continuing discussion between the company or partnership and the creditor, under the relevant agreement, which is likely to lead to a resolution; (2) the default is an isolated incident; (3) in
1Under section 166 of the Act, the FCA has a power to require a firm and certain other persons to provide a report by a skilled person, or itself to appoint a skilled person to produce such a report. The FCA may use its section 166 power to require reports by skilled persons to support both its supervision and enforcement functions.
1The factors the FCA will consider when deciding whether to use the section 166 power include: (1) If the FCA's objectives for making further enquiries are predominantly for the purposes of fact finding i.e. gathering historic information or evidence for determining whether enforcement action may be appropriate, the FCA's information gathering and investigation powers under sections 167 and 168 of the Act are likely to be more effective and more appropriate than the power under
1Under section 166A of the Act, the FCA also has a power to require a firm to appoint a skilled person to collect or update information, or itself to appoint a skilled person to do so, where it considers that the firm has failed to provide information required by the FCA or update information previously provided to the FCA.
1Under subsections 292A(1) and (2) of the Act, a UK RIE must as soon as practicable after a recognition order is made in respect of it publish such particulars of the ownership of the UK RIE, including the identity and scale of interests of the persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the UK RIE2or (where the UK RIE is also an RAP) the RAP, whether directly or indirectly, as the FCA3 may reasonably require.3
Under subsections 292A(3) and (4) of the Act, a UK RIE must as soon as practicable after becoming aware of a transfer of ownership of the UK RIE which gives rise to a change of persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the UK RIE or (where the UK RIE is also an RAP) the RAP,2 whether directly or indirectly, publish such particulars of any such transfer as the FCA3 may reasonably require.3