Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.4C
21 - 40 of 1010 items.
In respect of data inputs, the testing for accuracy of data (including the reconciliation referred to above) should be sufficiently detailed so that, together with other available evidence, it gives reasonable assurance that data input into the rating system is accurate, complete and appropriate. The FCA considers that input data fails to meet the required standard if it gives rise to a serious risk of material misstatement in the own funds requirement either immediately or s
For the FCA to be satisfied that a firm documents its ratings systems appropriately, in accordance with article 144(1)(e) of the EU CRR, it would expect a firm to be able to demonstrate that it has an appropriate policy for any ratings system in relation to:(1) any deficiencies caused by its not being sensitive to movements in fundamental risk drivers or for any other reason;(2) the periodic review and action in the light of such review;(3) providing appropriate internal guidance
To be satisfied that the requirements in article 179(1) of the EU CRR are met, the FCA expects a firm to collect data on what it considers to be the main drivers of the risk parameters of probability of default (PD), loss given default (LGD), conversion factors (CFs) and expected loss (EL) for each group of obligors or facilities, to document the identification of the main drivers of risk parameters, and be able to demonstrate that the process of identification is reasonable and
In its processes for identifying the main drivers of risk parameters, the FCA expects that a firm should set out its reasons for concluding that the data sources chosen provide in themselves sufficient discriminative power and accuracy and why additional potential data sources do not provide relevant and reliable information that would be expected materially to improve the discriminative power and accuracy of its estimates of the risk parameter in question. This process need not
To demonstrate that rating systems provide for meaningful assessment, the FCA expects that a firm's documentation relating to data should include clear identification of responsibility for data quality. A firm should set standards for data quality, aim to improve them over time and measure its performance against those standards. Furthermore, a firm should ensure that its data is of high enough quality to support its risk management processes and the calculation of its own funds
To estimate PDs that are long run averages of one-year default rates for obligor grades or pools, the FCA expects a firm to estimate expected default rates for the grade/pool over a representative mix of good and bad economic periods, rather than simply taking the historic average of default rates actually incurred by the firm over a period of years. The FCA expects that a long run estimate would be changed when there is reason to believe that the existing long run estimate is
To demonstrate compliance with article 144(1) of the EU CRR, the FCA expects a firm to take into account the following factors in understanding differences between their historic default rates and their PD estimates, and in adjusting the calibration of their estimates as appropriate:(1) the rating philosophy of the system and the economic conditions in the period over which the defaults have been observed;(2) the number of defaults, as a low number is less likely to be representative
The FCA expects a firm that is unable to produce a long run estimate, as described above, to consider what action it would be appropriate for it to take to comply with article 180(1)(a) of the EU CRR. In some circumstances, it may be appropriate for a firm to need to amend its rating system so that the PD used as an input into the IRB own funds requirement is an appropriately conservative estimate of the actual default rate expected over the next year. However, such an approach
In accordance with articles 181(1)(b) and 182(1)(b) of the EU CRR, where the estimates appropriate for an economic downturn are more conservative than the long run average, the FCA expects the estimate for each of these parameters to represent the LGD or CF expected, weighted by the number of defaults, over the downturn period. Where this is not the case, the FCA expects the estimate to be used to be the expected LGD or CF, weighted by the number of defaults, over a representative
To demonstrate that a rating system provides for a meaningful differentiation of risk and accurate and consistent quantitative estimates of risk, the FCA expects a firm would have regard to the sensitivity of the rating to movements in fundamental risk drivers, in assigning exposures to grades or pools within a rating system (see article 171 of the EU CRR).
If a person performs an FCA controlled function without approval it is not only the firm that is accountable. Under section 63A of the Act (Power to impose penalties), if the FCA is satisfied that:(1) a person (“P”) has at any time performed an FCA controlled function without approval; and(2) at that time P knew, or could reasonably be expected to have known, that P was performing an FCA controlled function without approval;it may impose a penalty on P of such amount as it considers
(1) In accordance with section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval), applications must be submitted by, or on behalf of, the firm itself, not by:(a) the FCAcandidate; or(b) (where the FCAcandidate works for the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company) by the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company.(2) Usually this will be the firm that is employing the FCAcandidate to perform the FCA controlled function. Where a firm has outsourced the performance of an FCA controlled
Outsourcing arrangements
Outsourcing arrangements |
Submitting form |
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The FCA will consider A to have taken reasonable care if it enters into a contract with B under which B is responsible for ensuring that the relevant FCA controlled functions are performed by FCA-approved persons, and that it is reasonable for A to rely on this |
Firm B submits FCA-approved persons forms on behalf of firm A |
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Outsourcing by A to B (both being a member of the same United Kingdom group and each having its registered office in the United Kingdom) |
See SUP 10A.3.4 G |
See SUP 15.7.8 G |
(i) A to B, where B is a non-authorised person not part of the same group as A (ii) A to B, where A is a branch of an overseas firm in the United Kingdom, and B is an overseas undertaking of the same group (iii) A to B, where A is a UK authorised subsidiary of an overseas firm and B is an overseas undertaking of the same group |
Responsibility for (as opposed to the performance of) any activity outsourced to B will remain with A. See SYSC 3.2.4 G and SYSC 8 |
A ensures that an individual approved by the FCA or the PRA under a controlled function that is a significant-influence function has responsibility for the outsourced arrangement and A submits a form in relation to that individual |
Where the notification of an appointed representative (SUP 12.7.1 R) is linked to an application for approval (SUP 10A.13 (Applications for approval and withdrawing an application for approval)), any delay in receiving the notification under SUP 12.7.1 R may delay the FCA's approval of the individuals employed by that appointed representative who will be performing FCA controlled functions for the firm.
In any case where the application for approval is made by a person applying for permission under Part 4A of the Act, the FCA has until the end of whichever of the following periods ends last: (1) the period within which an application for that permission must be determined; and(2) the period of three months from the time it receives a properly completed application.
The FCA must either grant the application or, if it proposes not to grant an application, issue a warning notice (see DEPP 2). The FCA will deal with cases more quickly than this whenever circumstances allow and will try to meet the standard response times published on the website and in its Annual Report. However, if an application is incomplete when received, or the FCA has knowledge that, or reason to believe that, the information is incomplete, then the processing time will
Application forms must always be completed fully and honestly. Further notes on how to complete the form are contained in each form. If forms are not completed fully and honestly, applications will be subject to investigation and the FCAcandidate's suitability to be approved to undertake an FCA controlled function will be called into question. A person who provides information to the FCA that is false or misleading may commit a criminal offence, and could face prosecution under
Before making a decision to grant the application or give a warning notice, the FCA may ask the firm for more information about the FCA candidate. If it does this, the three-month period in which the FCA must determine a completed application:(1) will stop on the day the FCA requests the information; and(2) will start running again on the day on which the FCA finally receives all the requested information.
The FCA may grant an application only if it is satisfied that the FCA candidate is a fit and proper person to perform the FCA controlled function stated in the application form. Responsibility lies with the firm making the application to satisfy the FCA that the FCA candidate is fit and proper to perform the FCA controlled function applied for.
In the3 case of a senior staff committee,3 the
decision will be taken by FCA3 staff who have not been directly involved in establishing the
evidence on which the decision is based
or by two or more FCA staff
who include a person not directly involved in establishing that evidence,3 except in accordance with section 395(3) of the Act.33
A senior
staff committee will consist of such FCA3 staff members as the FCA's3 senior executive committee may from time to time determine. The FCA's3 senior
executive committee may authorise the chairman of a senior
staff committee to select its other members. A senior staff committee is accountable for
its decisions to the FCA's3 senior executive committee and, through it, to the FCA3 Board.33333
A senior
staff committee may operate through standing or specific sub-committees
to consider particular decisions or classes of decision, for which accountability
will lie through the committee. Each meeting of a senior
staff committee, or sub-committee, will include:(1) an individual with authority to
act as its chairman; and(2) at least two other members.
Statutory
notice decisions to be taken under executive procedures and decisions referred
to in DEPP
2.5.6A G,3 and not falling within the responsibility of a senior
staff committee, will be taken by an individual FCA3 staff member. The decision will be:3(1) made by an executive director of
the FCA3 Board
or his delegate (who will be of at least the level of associate);3(2) on the recommendation of an FCA3 staff
member of at least the level of associate; and3(3) with the benefit
An FCA3 staff member who considers that a statutory
notice decision or
a decision referred to in DEPP
2.5.6A G3 should be taken above his own
level is free to refer that decision to a more senior level. If an FCA3 staff
member consults another staff member about a decision, the decision remains
the independent decision of the FCA3 staff member who consults his colleague, unless it is agreed
that the decision should instead be taken by the colleague, and the colleague
has the delegated
If an individual responsible for
a decision under executive procedures (or
a more senior FCA3 staff
member with responsibilities in relation to the decision concerned) considers
that it warrants collective consideration, the individual may:3(1) take the decision himself, following
consultation with other FCA3 staff members, as above; or3(2) refer it to a senior
staff committee, which will take the decision itself.
(1) FCA3staff
are required by their contract of employment to comply with a code of conduct
which imposes strict rules to cover the handling of conflicts of interest
which may arise from personal interests or associations. FCA3 staff subject to a conflict of interest must declare that interest
to the person to whom they are
immediately responsible for a decision.33(2) If a member of a senior
staff committee has a potential conflict of interest in any
matter in which he is asked
The procedure for taking decisions
under executive procedures will
generally be less formal and structured than that for decisions by the RDC. Broadly, however, FCA3 staff responsible for taking statutory
notice decisions under executive
procedures will follow a procedure similar to that described
at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for
the RDC except that:3(1) in a case where the decision will
be taken by a senior staff committee: (a) the chairman or deputy chairman
of the senior
3Broadly, FCA staff
responsible for taking decisions referred to in DEPP
2.5.6A G will follow
a procedure similar to that described at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for the RDC (subject to the exceptions in DEPP 4.1.13 G (1) to DEPP 4.1.13 G (5) which also reflects that these decisions
are not statutory notice decisions.
(1) 5The FCA may by notice in writing given to a sponsor require it to provide specified documents or specified information to the FCA.11(2) The sponsor must as soon as practicable provide to the FCA any documents or information that it has been required to provide under (1).11(3) This rule applies only to documents or information reasonably required by the FCA in connection with the performance of its functions in relation to a sponsor or a company that has appointed a spons
10Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that: (1) the sponsor has no or limited relevant experience and expertise of providing certain types of sponsor services or of providing sponsor services to certain types of company; or(2) the sponsor does not have systems and controls in place which are appropriate for the nature of the sponsor services which the sponsor
A sponsor must provide to the FCA on or after the first business day of January in each year but no later than the last business day of January in each year:77(1) written confirmation that it continues to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor as set out in LR 8.6.5 R; and5(1A) for each of the criteria in that rule, evidence8 of the basis upon which it considers that it meets that criterion8.588(2) [deleted]55(3) [deleted]55(4) [deleted]55
A sponsor must notify the FCA in writing as soon as possible if:(1) 8(a) 8the sponsor ceases to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor set out in LR 8.6.5 R or becomes aware of any matter which, in its reasonable opinion, would be relevant to the FCA in considering whether the sponsor continues to comply with LR 8.6.6 R; or(b) 8the sponsor becomes aware of any fact or circumstance relating to the sponsor or any of its employees engaged in the provision of sponsor services
8Where a sponsor is of the opinion that notwithstanding the circumstances giving rise to a notification obligation under LR 8.7.8 R, it continues to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R, it must include in its notification to the FCA a statement to that effect and the basis for its opinion.
8Examples of when a sponsor should submit a cancellation request pursuant to LR 8.7.22 R include, but are not limited to:(1) situations where the sponsor ceases to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R and, following a notification made under LR 8.7.8 R, there are no ongoing discussions with the FCA which could lead to the conclusion that the sponsor remains eligible; or(2) where there is a change of control of the sponsor or any
A request by a sponsor for its approval as a sponsor to be cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the sponsor's name;(2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the sponsor requests the cancellation to take effect;4(4) a signed confirmation that the sponsor will not provide any sponsor services8 as of the date the request is submitted to the FCA; and8(5) the name and contact details of the person at the sponsor with whom
10A request by a sponsor for its approval as a sponsor to be suspended must be in writing and must include: (1) the sponsor's name; (2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the sponsor requests the suspension to take effect;(4) a signed confirmation that the sponsor will not provide any sponsor services as of the date the request is submitted to the FCA; and(5) the name and contact details of the person at the sponsor with whom
11A sponsor may wish to consider submitting a suspension request under LR 8.7.25 R where the sponsor:(1) ceases to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R; (2) has notified the FCA in accordance with LR 8.7.8 R;(3) is having ongoing discussions with the FCA regarding remedial action; and(4) is undertaking remedial action which may result in the sponsor being able to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval in accordance with LR 8.6.6
10The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide or suspend a sponsor's approval under section 88E of the Act if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 88F of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraph 3
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls used in the performance of its [relevant functions] are adequate, and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business. |
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(2) |
Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning - |
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(a) |
the transmission of information; |
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(b) |
the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions]; |
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(c) |
the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE]; |
|
(ca) |
the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities; |
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(d) |
the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and |
|
(e) |
(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities. |
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In assessing whether the systems and controls used by a UK recognised body in the performance of its relevant functions are adequate and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business, the FCA3 may have regard to the UK recognised body's:3(1) arrangements for managing, controlling and carrying out its relevant functions, including: (a) the distribution of duties and responsibilities among its key individuals and the departments of the UK recognised body responsible for performing
The following paragraphs set out other matters to which the FCA3 may have regard in assessing the systems and controls used for the transmission of information, risk management, the effecting and monitoring of transactions, the operation of settlement arrangements (the matters covered in paragraph 4(2)(d) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations) and the safeguarding and administration of assets .33
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for the transmission of information, the FCA3 may also have regard to the extent to which these systems and controls ensure that information is transmitted promptly and accurately: 3(1) within the UK recognised body itself; (2) to members; and (3) (where appropriate) to other market participants or other relevant persons.
In assessing a UK RIE's systems and controls for the effecting and monitoring of transactions, and for the operation of settlement arrangements, the FCA3 may have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes through which the UK RIE's transactions are effected, cleared,3 and settled, including:333(1) a UK RIE's arrangements under which orders are received and matched, its arrangements for trade and transaction reporting, and (if relevant) its arrangements with another
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to the totality of the arrangements and processes by which the UK recognised body: 3(1) records the assets held and the identity of the owners of (and other persons with relevant rights over) those assets; (2) records any instructions given in relation to those assets;(3) records the carrying out of those instructions;(4)
The FCA3 recognises that a UK RIE3 has legitimate interests of its own and that its general business policy may properly be influenced by other persons (such as its owners). Such a connection does not necessarily imply the existence of a conflict of interest nor is it necessary to exclude individuals closely connected with other persons (for example, those responsible for the stewardship of the owner's interests) from all decision-making processes in a UK recognised body. However,
The FCA3 may have regard to the arrangements a UK recognised body makes to structure itself and to allocate responsibility for decisions so that it can continue to take proper regulatory decisions notwithstanding any conflicts of interest, including:3(1) the size and composition of the governing body and relevant committees; (2) the roles and responsibilities of key individuals, especially where they also have responsibilities in other organisations; (3) the arrangements for transferring
The FCA3 may also have regard to the systems and controls intended to ensure that confidential information is only used for proper purposes. Where relevant, recognised bodies will have to comply with section 348 (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by the FCA3 etc.) and regulations made under section 349 (Exemptions from section 348) of the Act.33
The FCA3 may also have regard to the contracts of employment, staff rules, letters of appointment for members of the governing body, members of relevant committees and other key individuals and other guidance given to individuals on handling conflicts of interest. Guidance to individuals may need to cover:3(1) the need for prompt disclosure of a conflict of interest to enable others, who are not affected by the conflict, to assist in deciding how it should be managed;(2) the circumstances
A UK recognised body's arrangements for internal and external audit will be an important part of its systems and controls. In assessing the adequacy of these arrangements, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the size, composition and terms of reference of any audit committee of the UK recognised body'sgoverning body;(2) the frequency and scope of external audit; (3) the provision and scope of internal audit; (4) the staffing and resources of the UK recognised body's internal audit
Information technology is likely to be a major component of the systems and controls used by any UK recognised body. In assessing the adequacy of the information technology used by a UK recognised body to perform or support its relevant functions, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the organisation, management and resources of the information technology department within the UK recognised body;(2) the arrangements for controlling and documenting the design, development, implementation
(1) If a member of the RDC has a potential conflict of interest in any matter in which he is asked to participate he will disclose the conflict to the RDC Office, and disclose it:(a) in the case of the Chairman of the RDC, to the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the FCA1; or1(b) in the case of a Deputy Chairman of the RDC, to the Chairman of the RDC, or if he is unavailable to the Chairman or Deputy Chairman of the FCA1; or1(c) in the case of any other member, to the Chairman or
If the RDC considers it relevant to its consideration, it may ask FCA1 staff to explain or provide any or all of the following:1(1) additional information about the matter (which FCA1 staff may seek by further investigation); or1(2) further explanation of any aspect of the FCA1 staff recommendation or accompanying papers; or1(3) information about FCA1 priorities and policies (including as to the FCA's view on the law or on the correct legal interpretation of provisions of the
If the RDC decides that the FCA1 should give a warning noticeor a first supervisory notice:1(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the warning notice or first supervisory notice, and will ensure that the notice complies with the relevant provisions of the Act;(2) the RDC will make any relevant statutory notice associated decisions;(3) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the notice to be given; and(4) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the disclosure
1If the RDC proposes that the FCA should publish information about the matter to which a warning notice falling within section 391(1ZB) of the Act relates:(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the statement it proposes the FCA should publish (warning notice statement);(2) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the warning notice statement it proposes the FCA should publish to be given to the persons to whom the warning notice was given or copied;(3) the proposed
1If the RDC decides that the FCA should publish a warning notice statement:(1) the RDC will notify the relevant parties (including the relevant FCA staff) in writing of that decision;2(2) the RDC will settle the wording of the warning notice statement; and(3) the FCA will make appropriate arrangements for the warning notice statement to be published.
(1) A warning notice or a first supervisory notice will (as required by the Act) specify the time allowed for making representations. This will not be less than 141 days.1(2) The FCA1 will also, when giving a warning notice or a first supervisory notice, specify a time within which the recipient is required to indicate whether he wishes to make oral representations.1
(1) The recipient of a warning notice or a first supervisory notice may request an extension of the time allowed for making representations. Such a request must normally be made within seven1days of the notice being given.1(2) If a request is made, the Chairman or a Deputy Chairman of the RDC will decide whether to allow an extension, and, if so, how much additional time is to be allowed for making representations. In reaching his decision he may take account of any relevant comments
(1) If the recipient of a warning notice or a first supervisory notice indicates that he wishes to make oral representations, the RDC staff, in conjunction with the Chairman or a Deputy Chairman of the RDC, will fix a date or dates for a meeting at which the relevant RDC members will receive those representations.(2) In making those arrangements the RDC staff will draw the Chairman's or Deputy Chairman's attention to any particular issues about the timing of the meeting which
The chairman of the relevant meeting will ensure that the meeting is conducted so as to enable:(1) the recipient of the warning notice or first supervisory notice to make representations;(2) the relevant FCA1 staff to respond to those representations;1(3) the RDC members to raise with those present any points or questions about the matter (whether in response to particular representations or more generally about the matter); and(4) the recipient of the notice to respond to points
If the RDC decides that the FCA1 should give a decision notice or a second supervisory notice:1(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the notice which will include a brief summary of the key representations made and how they have been dealt with, and will ensure that the notice complies with the relevant provisions of the Act;(2) the RDC will make any relevant statutory notice associated decisions, including whether the FCA1 is required to give a copy of the notice to a third
FCA1 staff responsible for recommending action to the RDC will continue to assess the appropriateness of the proposed action in the light of new information or representations they receive and any material change in the facts or circumstances relating to a particular matter. It may be therefore that they decide to give a notice of discontinuance to a person to whom a warning notice or decision notice has been given. The decision to give a notice of discontinuance does not require
Data may be deemed insufficient if, for example, it contains missing data points, or data points which contain stale data. With regard to less liquid risk factors or positions, the FCA expects the firm to make a conservative assessment of those risks, using a combination of prudent valuation techniques and alternative VaR estimation techniques to ensure there is a sufficient cushion against risk over the close-out period, which takes account of the illiquidity of the risk factor
(1) In determining whether it is appropriate for a firm to use empirical correlations within risk categories and across risk categories within a model, the FCA expects certain features to be observed in assessing whether such an approach is sound and implemented with integrity. In general, the FCA expects a firm to determine the aggregate VaR measure by adding the relevant VaR measure for each category, unless the firm's permission provides for a different method of aggregating
Any overshooting initially counts for the purpose of the calculation of the plus factor, even if subsequently the FCA agrees to exclude it. Thus, where the firm experiences an overshooting and already has four or more overshootings for the previous 250 business days, changes to the multiplication factor arising from changes to the plus factor become effective at day n+3.
The FCA, will review as part of a firm's VaR model permission application, the processes and documentation relating to the derivation of profit and loss used for back-testing. A firm's documentation should clearly set out the basis for cleaning profit and loss. To the extent that certain profit and loss elements are not updated every day (for example, certain reserve calculations) the documentation should clearly set out how such elements are included in the profit and loss s
In accordance with article 363(3) of the EU CRR (Permission to use internal models), the FCA expects a firm to provide and discuss with us details of any significant planned changes to the VaR model before those changes are implemented. These details must include detailed information about the nature of the change, including an estimate of the impact on VaR numbers and the incremental risk charge.
The use of overlapping intervals of 10-day holding periods for article 365 of the EU CRR (VaR and stressed VaR calculation) introduces an autocorrelation into the data that would not exist should truly independent 10-day periods be used. This may give rise to an under-estimation of the volatility and the VaR at the 99% confidence level. To obtain clarity on the materiality of the bias, a firm should measure the bias arising from the use of overlapping intervals for 10-day VaR
Article 365 of the EU CRR requires a firm that uses an internal model for calculating its own funds requirement to calculate, at least weekly, a stressed VaR (sVaR) of their current portfolio. When the FCA considers a firm's application to use a sVaR internal model it would expect the features in IFPRU 6.3.20 G to IFPRU 6.3.24 G to be present prior to permission being granted, as indicative that the conditions for granting permission have been met.
The firm should calculate the sVaR measure to be greater than or equal to the average of the 2nd and 3rd worst loss in a 12-month time series comprising of 250 observations. The FCA expects, as a minimum, that a corresponding linear weighting scheme should be applied if the firm uses a larger number of observations.
Article 372 of the EU CRR (Requirement to have an internal IRC model) requires a firm that use an internal model for calculating own funds requirements for specific risk of traded debt instruments to also have an internal incremental default and migration risk (IRC) model in place to capture the default and migration risk of its trading book positions that are incremental to the risks captured by its VaR model. When the FCA considers a firm's application to use an IRC internal
The FCA expects the IRC model to capitalise pre-default basis risk. In this respect, the model should reflect that in periods of stress the basis could widen substantially. The firm should disclose to the FCA its material basis risks that are incremental to those already captured in existing market risk capital measures (VaR-based and others). This must take actual close-out periods during periods of illiquidity into account.
To achieve a soundness standard comparable to those under the IRB approach, LGD estimates should reflect the economic cycle. Therefore, the FCA expects a firm to incorporate dependence of the recovery rate on the economic cycle into the IRC model. Should the firm use a conservative parameterisation to comply with the IRB standard of the use of downturn estimates, evidence of this should be submitted in quarterly reporting to the FCA, bearing in mind that for trading portfolios,
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
If it is proposed that an FCA-approved person will no longer be performing an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by one firm or one of its contractors, but will be performing the same or a different FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a new firm or one of its contractors (whether or not the new firm is in the same group as the old firm), the new firm will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the FCA controlled
A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 6R, no later than seven business days after an FCA-approved person ceases to perform an FCA controlled function. This does not apply if the firm has already notified the FCA of the proposal to do that using Form E in accordance with this chapter or has notified the PRA of the proposal to do that using the PRA's Form E in accordance with SUP 10B of the PRA's Handbook.
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation by the firm, the FCA or any
Notification under SUP 10A.14.10 R may be made by telephone, email or fax and should be made, where possible, within one business day of the firm becoming aware of the information. If the firm does not submit Form C, it should inform the FCA in due course of the reason. This could be done using Form D, if appropriate.
A firm can submit Form C or Form E to the FCA in advance of the cessation date. When a person ceases the arrangement under which he performs an FCA controlled function, he will automatically cease to be an FCA-approved person in relation to that FCA controlled function. A person can only be an FCA-approved person in relation to a specific FCA controlled function. Therefore, a person is not an FCA-approved person during any period between ceasing to perform one FCA controlled function
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
(1) 11If a UKfirm has exercised an EEA right under AIFMD and established a branch in another EEA State, the UKfirm must not make a material change in the requisite details of the branch or the identity of the AIFs it manages in the EEA State in which it has established a branch (see SUP 13 Annex 1), unless: (a) it has complied with regulation 17A(4) for a planned change; or(b) it has complied with regulation 17A(5) for a unplanned change.(2) The requirements in regulation 17A(4)
(1) 13A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to establish a branch, must not make any material changes to the requisite details of the branch unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice has elapsed.(3) Paragraph
17Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
7When the appropriate UK regulator17 receives a notice from a UK MiFID investment firm (see SUP 13.6.5BG (1)), it is required by regulation 11A(3) to inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The firm in question may make the change once the period of one month beginning with the day on which it gave notice has elapsed.17
(1) 11When the FCA receives a notice from an AIFM (see SUP 13.6.9C G) for a planned change and such change means the AIFM no longer complies with AIFMD, the FCA must inform the AIFM without undue delay that:(a) the FCA objects to the change, including reasons for its decision; and(b) the AIFM must not implement the change.In these circumstances the AIFM may refer the matter to the Tribunal.(2) If a planned change is implemented or an unplanned change takes place and results in
13When the FCA receives a notice from a UK firm exercising an EEA right under the MCD it will, under regulation 17(B)(3), inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The UK firm in question may make the change once a period of one month has elapsed beginning with the day on which it gave notice.
(1) The FCA may require a primary information provider to provide specified information or specified documents to the FCA.(2) The primary information provider must as soon as practicable provide to the FCA any information or documents it has been required to provide under (1).(3) This rule applies only to information or documents reasonably required by the FCA in connection with the performance of its functions in relation to a primary information provider.
Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the primary information provider's ability to satisfy its obligations in DTR 8.4 would be likely to be compromised; or(2) the primary information provider is proposing to make changes to its systems and controls or operations which would be likely to prevent it from satisfying any of its
A request by a primary information provider for its approval as a primary information provider to be suspended must be in writing and must include:(1) the primary information provider's name;(2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the primary information provider requests the suspension to take effect; and(4) the name and contact details of the person at the primary information provider with whom the FCA should liaise in relation
A request by a primary information provider for its approval as a primary information provider to be cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the primary information provider's name; (2) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(3) the date on which the primary information provider requests the cancellation to take effect; and(4) the name and contact details of the person at the primary information provider with whom the FCA should liaise in relation
The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider can provide or suspend a primary information provider's approval if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 89V of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
The appropriate regulator uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:55(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the appropriate regulator has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the
The appropriate regulator expects to request meetings or access to business premises during reasonable business hours. The appropriate regulator also normally expects to be able to give reasonable notice to a firm or connected person when it seeks information, documents, meetings or access to business premises. On rare occasions, however, the appropriate regulator may seek access to premises without notice. The prospect of unannounced visits is intended to encourage firms to
In complying with Principle 11, the appropriate regulator considers that a firm should, in relation to the discharge by the appropriate regulator of its functions under the Act:(1) make itself readily available for meetings with representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator as reasonably requested;(2) give representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator reasonable access to any records, files, tapes or computer systems, which are within the firm's possession
In complying with Principle 11, the appropriate regulator considers that a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that the following persons act in the manner set out in SUP 2.3.3 G: (1) its employees, agents and appointed representatives; and(2) any other members of its group, and their employees and agents.(See also, in respect of appointed representatives, SUP 12.5.3 G (2)).
(1) A firm must permit representatives of the appropriate regulator, or persons appointed for the purpose by the appropriate regulator, to have access, with or without notice, during reasonable business hours to any of its business premises in relation to the discharge of the appropriate regulator's functions under the Act or its obligations under the short selling regulation3.(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that its agents, suppliers under material outsourcing
The cooperation that a firm is expected to procure from such suppliers is similar to that expected of the firm, in the light of the guidance in SUP 2.3.3 G to SUP 2.3.4 G, but does not extend to matters outside the scope of the appropriate regulator's functions in relation to the firm. SUP 2.3.5 R (2) also requires a firm to take reasonable steps regarding access to the premises of such suppliers.
When a firm appoints or renews the appointment of a supplier under a material outsourcing arrangement, it should satisfy itself that the terms of its contract with the supplier require the supplier to give the appropriate regulator7 access to its premises as described in SUP 2.3.5 R (2), and to cooperate with the appropriate regulator7 as described in SUP 2.3.7 R. The appropriate regulator7 does not consider that the 'reasonable steps' in SUP 2.3.7 R would require a firm to
The appropriate regulator may ask a firm to provide it with information at the request of or on behalf of other regulators to enable them to discharge their functions properly. Those regulators may include overseas regulators or the Takeover Panel. The appropriate regulator may also, without notifying a firm, pass on to those regulators information which it already has in its possession. The appropriate regulator's disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to
7In complying with Principle 11, the FCA considers that a firm should cooperate with it in providing information for other regulators. Sections 169 (Investigations etc. in support of overseas regulator) of the Act gives the FCA certain statutory powers to obtain information and appoint investigators for overseas regulators if required (see DEPP 7 and EG 3).
LR 8.4.2 R to LR 8.4.4 G2 apply in relation to an application for admission of equity shares to premium listing65if an applicant does not have equity shares5already admitted to premium listing ,68 the conditions in LR 6.1.1A R do not apply and8, in connection with the application, the applicant is required to submit to the FCA:25568(1) a prospectus , supplementary prospectus8or equivalent document1; or88(2) a certificate of approval from another competent authority; or8(3)
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA an application on behalf of an applicant, in accordance with LR 3, unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:(1) the applicant has satisfied all requirements of the listing rules relevant to an application for admission to listing;(2) the applicant has satisfied all applicable requirements set out in the prospectus rules unless the home Member State of the applicant is not, or will not be, the
A sponsor must:(1) submit a completed Sponsor's Declaration on an Application for Listing to the FCA either:2(a) on the day the FCA is to consider the application for approval of the prospectus and prior to the time the prospectus is approved; or(b) at a time agreed with the FCA, if the FCA is not approving the prospectus or if it is determining whether a document is an equivalent document1;(2) submit a completed Shareholder Statement or Pricing Statement, as applicable, to the
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA an application on behalf of an applicant, in accordance with LR 3 (Listing applications), unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:(1) the applicant has satisfied all requirements of the listing rules relevant to an application for admission to listing;(2) the applicant has satisfied all applicable requirements set out in the prospectus rules unless the home Member State of the applicant is
A sponsor must:(1) submit a completed Sponsor's Declaration on an Application for Listing to the FCA either:(a) on the day the FCA is to consider the application for approval of the prospectus and prior to the time the prospectus is approved; or11(b) at a time agreed with the FCA if the FCA is not approving the prospectus or if it is determining whether a document is an equivalent document1;(2) submit a completed Shareholder Statement or Pricing Statement, as applicable, to the
LR 8.4.12 R to LR 8.4.13 R apply in relation to transactions involving an issuer with 5 a premium listing4 of equity shares5that is required to submit to the FCA for approval8:54(1) a class 1 circular; or48(2) a circular that proposes a reconstruction or a re-financing which does not constitute a class 1 transaction; or8(3) a circular for the proposed purchase of own shares:88(a) which does not constitute a class 1 circular; and(b) is required by LR 13.7.1R (2) to include a
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA, on behalf of a listed company, a circular regarding a transaction set out in LR 8.4.11 R for approval8, unless the sponsor has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:8(1) the listed company has satisfied all requirements of the listing rules relevant to the production of a class 1 circular or other circular;(2) the transaction will not have an adverse impact on the listed company's ability to comply with
A sponsor acting on a transaction falling within LR 8.4.11 R must:(1) submit a completed Sponsor's Declaration for the Production of a Circular to the FCA on the day the circular is to be approved by the FCA and prior to the time the circular is approved;(2) submit a completed Pricing Statement, if applicable, to the FCA by 9 a.m on the day the FCA is to consider the application; and(3) ensure that all matters known to it which, in its reasonable opinion, should be taken into
In relation to a proposed transfer under LR 5.4A, if a sponsor is appointed6 in accordance with LR 8.2.1A R, it6 must:6(1) submit a letter to the FCA setting out how the issuer satisfies each listing rule requirement relevant to the category of listing to which it wishes to transfer, by no later than when the first draft of the circular or announcement required under LR 5.4A is submitted;(2) submit a completed Sponsor’s Declaration for a Transfer of Listing7 to the FCA for the
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA on behalf of an issuer a final circular or announcement for approval or a Sponsor’s Declaration for a Transfer of Listing7, unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:7(1) the issuer satisfies all eligibility requirements of the listing rules that are relevant to the new category to which it is seeking to transfer;(2) the issuer has satisfied all requirements relevant to the production of the
6A sponsor acting on a reverse takeover where the issuer decides to make a disclosure announcement under LR 5.6.15 G must:(1) submit to the FCA under LR 5.6.17 R a completed Sponsor’s Declaration for a Reverse Takeover Announcement7;(2) not submit to the FCA the Sponsor’s Declaration for a Reverse Takeover Announcement7 unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that it is reasonable for the issuer to provide the declarations described
Section 395 of the Act (The FCA's and PRA's procedures) requires the FCA2 to
publish a statement of its procedure for the giving of statutory
notices. The procedure must be designed to secure, among other
things, that the decision which gives rise to the obligation to give a statutory notice is taken by a person not
directly involved in establishing the evidence on which that decision is based or by two or more persons who include
a person not directly involved in establishing
Table: Summary of statutory and related notices
Notice |
Description |
Act reference |
Further information |
Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA2 proposes to take and about the right to make representations. 2 |
Section 387 |
||
Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA2 has decided to take. The FCA2 may also give a further decision notice if the recipient of the original decision notice consents. 22 |
Section 388 |
||
Identifies proceedings set out in a warning notice or decision notice and which are not being taken or are being discontinued. |
Section 389 |
||
Sets out the terms of the action that the FCA2 is taking. 2 |
Section 390 |
||
Gives the recipient details about action that the FCA2 has taken or proposes to take, for example to vary a Part 4A permission.2 22 |
Section 395(13) |
2Section 395 of the Act also
requires the FCA to publish
a statement of its procedure for decisions which gives rise to an obligation
for the PRA to include a statement
under section 387(1A) in a warning notice or
a statement under section 388(1A) in a decision
notice as follows:(1) Section 387(1A) provides that where
the FCA proposes to refuse
consent for the purposes of section 55F, 55I or 59 of the Act,
or to give conditional consent as mentioned in section 55F(5) or 55I(8),
2Where an application for Part
4A permission is made to the PRA as
the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act),
the PRA may only give permission
with the consent of the FCA (section
55F of the Act). FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations or specifying the
permission is for certain regulated activities only.
2Where an application to vary a Part
4A permission is made to the PRA as
the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act),
the PRA may only give permission
with the consent of the FCA (section
55I of the Act). The FCA may withhold its consent to a proposed
variation if it appears to it that it is desirable to do so in order to advance
one or more of its operational objectives. FCA consent
can be conditional on the PRA imposing
limitations, or the PRA specifying
the permission
Decisions on whether to give a statutory notice will be taken by a 'decision
maker'. The FCA's2 assessment
of who is the appropriate decision maker is subject to the requirements of
section 395 of the Act and will
depend upon the nature of the decision, including its complexity, importance
and urgency. References to the 'decision maker' in DEPP are
to:2(1) the Regulatory
Decisions Committee (RDC);
or(2) FCA2 staff
under executive procedures;
or2(3) FCA2 staff
under the settlement
The decision maker will also take
decisions associated with a statutory notice (a
'statutory notice associated decision'). Statutory notice associated decisions include
decisions:(1) to set or extend the period for
making representations;(2) on whether the FCA2 is required to give a copy of
the statutory notice to any
third party and, if so, the period for the third party to make representations;
and2(3) on whether to refuse access to FCA2 material,
relevant to the relevant statutory
DEPP 2 to DEPP 5 set out:(1) which decisions require the giving
of statutory notices and who takes them (DEPP 2);(2) the nature and procedures of the RDC (DEPP 3);(3) the procedure for decision making
by FCA2 staff
under executive procedures (DEPP 4);2(4) the procedure for decision making
by FCA2 staff
under the settlement decision procedure (DEPP 5).2
The power in regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations to impose a civil penalty
or publish a statement adds to the FCA's2 other supervisory powers in relation to RAPs (see REC 4) and
its power to impose penalties on an RAP under
the Money Laundering Regulations.
The FCA2 will
use this power under the RAP Regulations where
it is appropriate to do so and with regard to the relevant factors listed
in DEPP 6.2.1 G.
In deciding between a civil penalty or a public statement, the FCA2 will
The FCA2 will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed
officers to carry out an investigation under either or both the RAP Regulations or the Money
Laundering Regulations and the reasons for the appointment,
unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise
result in it being frustrated. The FCA2 expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement
process in most cases.22
The FCA2 will also have regard to whether the person followed any of the FCA's2 guidance
and will not take action under regulation 5A where there are reasonable grounds
for it to be satisfied that the person took all reasonable steps and exercised
all due diligence to ensure that the requirement was complied with.22
When the FCA2 proposes or decides to take action against an RAP in
exercise of its power in regulation 5A of the RAP
Regulations, it must give the RAP a warning notice or a decision
notice respectively. Those notices must state the amount of
the penalty or set out the terms of the statement, as applicable. On receiving
a warning notice, the RAP has a right to make representations
on the FCA's2 proposed
decision.22
Where the FCA2 is proposing or deciding to publish a statement censuring an RAP or impose a penalty on the RAP under regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations, the FCA's2 decision maker will be the RDC.
This is to ensure that the FCA's2 power to censure or impose a penalty on an RAP has
the same layer of separation in the decision making process, and is exercised
consistently with, similar penalty and censure powers of the FCA2 under other legislation. The RDC will
make its decisions
The appointment of a skilled person to produce a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) is one of the appropriate regulator's6 regulatory tools. The tool may be used:6(1) for diagnostic purposes, to identify, assess and measure risks; (2) for monitoring purposes, to track the development of identified risks, wherever these arise;(3) in the context of preventative action, to limit or reduce identified risks and so prevent them from crystallising or increasing;
The decision by the appropriate regulator6 to require a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) 6will normally be prompted by a specific requirement for information, analysis of information, assessment of a situation,4 expert advice or recommendations or by a decision to seek assurance in relation to a regulatory return4. It may4 be part of the risk mitigation programme applicable to a firm, or the result of an event or development
6The decision by the appropriate regulator to require the collection or updating of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) will be prompted where the appropriate regulator considers there has been a breach of a requirement by a firm to collect, and keep up to date, information of a description specified in the appropriate regulator'srules.
When making the decision to require a report by a skilled person under section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or the collection or updating of information by a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, the appropriate regulator6 will have regard, on a case-by-case basis, to all relevant factors. Those are likely to include:6(1) circumstances relating to the firm;(2) alternative tools available, including other
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to circumstances relating to the firm, for example:6(1) attitude of the firm: whether the firm is being cooperative;(2) history of similar issues: whether similar issues have arisen in the past and, if so, whether timely corrective action was taken;(3) quality of a firm's systems and records: whether the appropriate regulator6 has confidence that the firm has the ability to provide the required information;6(4) objectivity: whether
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:6(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit bystaff of the appropriate regulator6or a request for information on an informal basis); 6(2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Power6 to require information);6(3) appointing investigators
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to legal and procedural considerations including:6(1) statutory powers: whether one of the other available statutory powers is more appropriate for the purpose than the power in section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act;66(2) subsequent proceedings: whether it is desirable to obtain an authoritative and independent report for use in any subsequent
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to the objectives of its enquiries, and the relative effectiveness of its available powers to achieve those objectives. For example:6(1) historic information or evidence: if the objectives are limited to gathering historic information, or evidence for determining whether enforcement action may be appropriate, the appropriate regulator's information gathering and investigation powers under sections 165 (Power to require information),
In accordance with its general policy the appropriate regulator6 will have regard to the question of cost, which is particularly pertinent in relation to skilled persons because:6(1) if the appropriate regulator6 uses the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) or the section 166A power (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), either 6the firm will appoint, and will have to pay for the services of, the skilled person, or the appropriate regulator
In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) or the section 166A power (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) 6alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the appropriate regulator6will take into account relevant factors, including:6(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to appropriate regulator6-related considerations including:66(1) appropriate regulator6expertise: whether the appropriate regulator6has the necessary expertise; and66(2) appropriate regulator6resources: whether the resources required to produce a report or to make enquiries or to appoint a skilled person itself6 are available within the appropriate regulator6, or whether the exercise will be the best use of the appropriate regulator's6
The issuer must send to the FCA annual written confirmation of compliance with Regulations 16 (sums derived from the issue of regulated covered bonds) and 17 (general requirements on the issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 1D (annual confirmation of compliance).
1Where possible, the director or senior manager who signs the annual confirmation should be the same director or senior manager who has verified the application for registration under RCB 2.2.6 D. If the director or senior manager is different to the director or senior manager who verified the application for registration, the issuer should notify the FCA at least one month before sending the confirmation to the FCA.
(1) The owner must ensure that a duly authorised representative signs the confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the owner has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.(2) The owner must obtain appropriate advice in the same manner as set out in RCB 3.2.2 D and must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA as set out in RCB 3.2.4B D.1
1The FCA expects the inspection by the asset pool monitor of the compliance of the issuer or owner (as the case may be) with the relevant requirements in the RCB Regulations to address at least the matters to be checked and due diligence procedures set out in RCB 2.3.18 G. The FCA expects that the inspection will be conducted on an agreed-upon-procedures basis.
1As required under Regulation 17A of the RCB Regulations, if it appears to the asset pool monitor that the issuer or owner (as the case may be) has failed to comply with the requirements set out in Regulations 17 or 24 of the RCB Regulations, or has not provided all relevant information or explanations, the asset pool monitor must report that to the FCA in writing as soon as possible.
A firm (other than the Society and an MTF operator in relation to its MTF business5) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR6) of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.15
A firm (other than the Society) must send to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)15 in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.1 R as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation of fees payable to the FCA6 (or FEES 4.2.7B R where applicable).2151515
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FCA6 does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information it 6 may seek this by using the general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA or PRA6 on its own initiative)).14141414141414
3A fee-paying payment service provider and a fee-paying electronic money issuer4 must notify to the FCA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee (other than a flat fee)4 payable by the firm under 1 R4 is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom. 4
Where the appropriate regulator requires a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the appropriate regulator2 will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person, or notifying the person in SUP 5.2.1 G in writing of the appropriate regulator's appointment of a skilled person to provide a report,2 on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions
2Where the appropriate regulator requires the updating or collection of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the appropriate regulator will send a notice in writing requiring the firm to appoint a skilled person, or notifying the firm of the appropriate regulator's appointment of a skilled person, to collect or update the relevant information.
As part of the decision making process the appropriate regulator2 will normally contact the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 to discuss its needs before finalising its decision to require a report or the updating or collection of information by a skilled person. This will provide an opportunity for discussion about the appointment, whether an alternative means of obtaining the information would be better, what the scope of a report should be, who should be appointed,
The appropriate regulator2 will give written notification to the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 of the purpose of the report or collection or updating of information,2 its scope, the timetable for completion and any other relevant matters. The appropriate regulator2 will state the matters which the report is to contain, or the information which is to be collected or updated,2 as well as any requirements as to the report's format. For example, a report on controls may
The written notification in SUP 5.4.3 G may be preceded or followed by a discussion of the appropriate regulator's2 requirements and the reasons for them. This may involve the appropriate regulator,2 the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 and the person who has been, or is expected to be, appointed as the skilled person. The appropriate regulator2 recognises that there will normally be value in holding discussions involving the skilled person at this stage. These discussions
A skilled person must appear to the appropriate regulator2 to have the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information.2 A skilled person may be an accountant, lawyer, compliance consultant,2actuary or person with relevant business, technical or technological skills.2
When considering whether to nominate, approve or appoint a skilled person to make a report or collect or update information, the appropriate regulator will have regard to the circumstances of the case, including whether the proposed skilled person appears to have:22(1) the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information;2(2) the ability to complete the report or collect or update the information within the time expected by
In appropriate circumstances, it may be cost effective for the appropriate regulator2 to nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint itself,2 a skilled person who has previously acted for, or advised, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.2 For example, the appropriate regulator2 may nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint,2 the auditor of a person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 to prepare a report or collect or update the information2 taking into account,
Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the appropriate regulator2 will normally require the skilled person to be appointed to report to the appropriate regulator2 through that person. In the normal course of events the appropriate regulator2 expects that the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 will be given the opportunity to provide written comments on the report or the collection of the relevant information prior to its submission
The appropriate regulator2 may enter into a dialogue with the skilled person, and is ready to discuss matters relevant to the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information2 with him, during the preparation of the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information.2 Such discussions may2 involve or be through the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.222
The appropriate regulator2 will normally specify a time limit within which it expects the skilled person to deliver the report or collect or update the relevant information. Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the2skilled person should, in complying with its contractual duty under SUP 5.5.1 R, take reasonable steps to achieve delivery by that time. If the skilled person becomes aware that the report may not be delivered, or collection
1The Referral Fees Regulations give the FCA investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to the contravention of the rules against referral fees contained in sections 56 to 60 of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 (the LASPO Act), as well as the contravention of requirements imposed by, or under, the Referral Fees Regulations.
1The FCA's approach to taking enforcement action under the Referral Fees Regulations will mirror its general approach to enforcing the Act, as set out in EG 2. It will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate and responsive to the issue and consistent with its publicly stated policies. It will also seek to ensure fair treatment when exercising its enforcement powers. Finally, it will aim to change the behaviour of the person who
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the Referral Fees Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. In most cases, the FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations under the Referral Fees Regulations is to use powers
1When determining whether to take action to impose a penalty or to issue a public censure under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6.2 and DEPP 6.4. When determining the level of financial penalty, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6.5 to 6.5B, DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.7.
1When determining whether to take action to impose a suspension or restriction under the Referral Fees Regulations, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant factors in DEPP 6A.2 and 6A.4. When determining the length of the period of suspension or restriction, the FCA's policy includes having regard to the relevant principles and factors in DEPP 6A.3. However, the FCA does not have the power to suspend an authorised person’spermission under the Referral Fees Regulations.
1The FCA, together with several other UK authorities, has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act to enforce breaches of consumer protection law. Where a breach has been committed, the FCA will liaise with other authorities, particularly the Competition and Markets Authority (the CMA), to determine which authority is best placed to take enforcement action. The FCA would generally expect to be the most appropriate authority to deal with breaches by authorised firms in relation
1The Community legislation falling within the FCA's scope under the Enterprise Act is: the Unfair Terms in Consumer Contracts Directive;17the Comparative and Misleading Advertising Directive;18the E-Commerce Directive;19the Distance Marketing Directive;20the Unfair Commercial Practices Directive; 21andthe Consumer Credit Directive.2217 Directive 93/13/EEC18 Directive 97/55/EC19 Directive 2000/31/EC20 Directive 2002/65/EC21 Directive 2005/29/EC22 Directive 2008/48/EC
1The FCA has powers under Part 8 of the Enterprise Act both as a “designated enforcer” in relation to domestic and Community infringements and as a “CPC enforcer” which gives the FCA and other CPC enforcers additional powers in relation to Community infringements so that they can meet their obligations as “competent authorities” under Regulation (EC) No.2006/2004 on co-operation between national authorities responsible for enforcement of consumer protection laws (the CPC Regulation).
1As a designated enforcer, the FCA has the power to apply to the courts for an enforcement order which requires a person who has committed a domestic or Community infringement or, as to the latter, is likely to commit such an infringement: (1) not to engage, including through a company and, as to a domestic infringement, whether or not in the course of business, in the conduct which constituted, or is likely to constitute, the infringement; (2) to publish the order and/or a corrective
1The FCA may also apply, if necessary without notice, for interim enforcement orders where immediate temporary prohibition of the relevant conduct is expedient pending full consideration by the court. Such interim orders can also be sought pre-emptively in relation to Community infringements, but again only preventing conduct in the course of business.
1The FCA’s investigative powers in support of its Enterprise Act enforcement powers are set out in Schedule 5 to the CRA. The FCA can, under Schedule 5, require any person to provide it with information which will enable it to (i) exercise or consider exercising its functions as an enforcer; or (ii) determine whether a person is complying with an enforcement order, an interim enforcement order or an undertaking given as described below. If the FCA requires a person to provide
1Before the FCA may apply for an enforcement order, including an interim enforcement order, it must: (1) give notice to the CMA of its intention to apply for an enforcement order; and (2) unless the application relates to breach of an undertaking given to the court (other than one to provide information), consult the person against whom the enforcement order would be made.
1The aim of consultation is to ensure that any action taken is necessary and proportionate, and to ensure that businesses are given a reasonable opportunity to put things right before the courts become involved. The consultation period starts when the person receives the FCA's request for consultation and runs whether or not that person agrees to be consulted and/or is available for consultation.
1In addition to its powers as a designated enforcer under the Enterprise Act, the FCA also has powers, in its capacity as a “CPC enforcer” and, therefore, only in respect of Community infringements, to enter commercial premises with or without a warrant. The FCA must give at least two working days’ notice of its intention to enter such premises without a warrant unless that is not reasonably practicable. If the FCA cannot give a notice in advance, it must produce the notice on
1The FCA anticipates that its powers under the Act will be adequate to address the majority of breaches which it would also be able to enforce under the Enterprise Act and that there will therefore be limited cases in which it would seek to use its powers as an Enterprise Act enforcer. Where the FCA does use its powers under the Enterprise Act, it will have regard to the enforcement guidelines which are published on the CMA’s website.2323www.gov.uk/governmentorganisations
1The FCA may apply for such an order where a criminal investigation has been started or where proceedings have started but not concluded; in either case there must be reasonable cause to believe that the defendant has benefited from criminal conduct. In this context, a person benefits from criminal conduct if he obtains property or a pecuniary advantage as a result of or in connection with conduct that would be an offence if it took place in England or Wales, regardless of whether