Related provisions for CONC 7.18.4
101 - 120 of 225 items.
(1) The value of the scheme property is the net value of the scheme property after deducting any outstanding borrowings (including any capital outstanding on a mortgage of an immovable).(2) Any part of the scheme property which is not an investment (save an immovable) must be valued at fair value.(3) For the purposes of (2), any charges that were paid, or would be payable, on acquiring or disposing of the asset must be excluded from the value of that asset.(4) The value of the
3If a qualified investor scheme has two or more classes of unit in issue, the authorised fund manager may treat any or all of those classes as one for the purpose of determining the number of units to be issued or cancelled by reference to a particular valuation point, if:(1) the depositary gives its prior agreement; and(2) the relevant classes:(a) have the same entitlement to participate in, and the same liability for charges, expenses and other payments that may be recovered
(1) An ICVC must not incur any expense in respect of the use of any movable or immovable property unless the scheme is dedicated to such investment or such property is necessary for the direct pursuit of its business.(2) Payments out of the scheme property may be made from capital property rather than from income, provided the basis for this is set out in the prospectus.
When a firm assesses whether the equity release transaction is appropriate to the needs and circumstances of the customer for the purposes of MCOB 8.5A.5 R, the factors it must consider include the following:(1) whether the benefits to the customer outweigh any adverse effect on:(a) the customer's entitlement (if any) to means-tested benefits; and(b) the customer's tax position (for example the loss of an Age Allowance);(2) alternative methods of raising the required funds such
(1) A firm must make and retain a record: (a) of the customer information, including that relating to the customer's needs and circumstances and the customer's apparent satisfaction of the equity release provider's known eligibility criteria, that it has obtained for the purposes of MCOB 8.5A; (b) that explains why the firm has concluded that any advice given to a customer complies with MCOB 8.5A.2 R and satisfies the suitability requirement in MCOB 8.5A.5R (1); (c) of any advice
(1) The authorised fund manager must manage the scheme in accordance with:(a) the instrument constituting the fund;1111(b) the rules in this sourcebook;(c) the most recently published prospectus; and(d) for an ICVC, the OEIC Regulations.(2) The authorised fund manager must take such steps as necessary to ensure compliance with the rules in this sourcebook that impose obligations upon the ICVC.(3) The authorised fund manager must:(a) make decisions as to the constituents of the
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund must take reasonable care to ensure that the scheme is managed by the authorised fund manager in accordance with:(a) COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers);(b) COLL 6.2 (Dealing);(c) COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing);(d) COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution); and(e) any provision of the instrument constituting the fund11 or prospectus that relates to the provisions referred to in (a) to (d).11(2) The depositary
(1) The authorised fund manager10 of an AUT or ACS10 must, upon any vacancy for the position of auditor for an AUT or ACS10, with the approval of the depositary,10 appoint as auditor for the AUT or ACS10 a person qualified for appointment as auditor of an authorised person.1010(2) The audit fees of the auditor are determined by the authorised fund manager10 with the approval of the depositary10.1010(3) The authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS10 may, with the approval of the
(1) Principle 8 requires a firm to manage conflicts of interest fairly, both between itself and its customers and between a customer and another client. This principle extends to soliciting or accepting inducements where this would conflict with a firm's duties to its customers. A firm that offers such inducements should consider whether doing so conflicts with its obligations under Principles 1 and 6 to act with integrity and treat customers fairly.(2) An inducement is a benefit
Firms are reminded that, in relation to a regulated mortgage contract which is solely 2for a business purpose or is with a high net worth mortgage customer2 in circumstances where MCOB 7.7.1 R applies, if there is a new early repayment charge or a change to the existing early repayment charge, MCOB 7.7.1 R(2) requires a firm to notify the customer within five business days of the maximum amount payable as an early repayment charge.
(1) This chapter amplifies Principle 6 and Principle 7. 2(1A) 2This chapter requires information to be supplied to customers at the start of a2regulated mortgage contract to enable them to check that the regulated mortgage contract has been set up in accordance with their requirements and to notify them of the first and subsequent payments.2(2) Where a firm provides services to a customer in relation to a further advance, rate switch, or addition or removal of a party to a regulated
(1) Principle 6 requires a firm to pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly. A firm is also under an obligation, as a consequence of this sourcebook's disclosure requirements,1 to make charges transparent to customers. This chapter reinforces these requirements by preventing a firm from imposing unfair and excessive charges.1(2) The level of charges under a regulated mortgage contract,2home reversion plan1 or regulated sale and rent back agreement2
(1) 2This chapter amplifies Principle 6 (Customers' interests), Principle 7 (Communications with clients) and Principle 9 (Customers: relationships of trust). (2) The purpose of this chapter is to ensure that: (a) customers are adequately informed about the nature of the service they may receive from a firm in relation to equity release transactions. In particular firms need to make clear to customers the range of equity release transactions available from them and the basis of
(1) When a firm enters into a current account agreement where:(a) there is a possibility that the account-holder may be allowed to overdraw on the current account without a pre-arranged overdraft or exceed a pre-arranged overdraft limit; and (b) if the account-holder did so, this would be a regulated credit agreement;the current account agreement must contain the information in (2) and (3).[Note: section 74A(1) of CCA](2) The information required by (1) is:(a) the rate of interest
(1) Where a firm is entitled to payments from the same customer in respect of two or more regulated agreements, the firm must allow the customer, on making any payment in respect of those agreements which is not sufficient to discharge the total amount then due under all the agreements, to appropriate the sum paid by him:(a) in or towards the satisfaction of the sum due under any one of the agreements; or(b) in or towards the satisfaction of the sums due under any two or more
1A firm that agrees to start facilitating the payment of an adviser charge or consultancy charge, or an increase in such a charge, from an in-force packaged product, must prepare sufficient information for the retail client to be able to understand the likely effect of that facilitation, in good time before it takes effect2.2
1The FCA believes that Principle 7 requires charges imposed by a firm on customers to be transparent and that imposing unfair or excessive charges is inconsistent with Principle 6. Note: A firm should also have regard to its obligations under the Unfair Terms Regulations (for contracts entered into before 1 October 2015) or the CRA2and may find material on the FCA website concerning the FCA consumer protection powers useful.
(1) The purpose of MCOB 5.3.1 R, taken in conjunction with other rules in this chapter, is to ensure that the customer has received details of the particular home finance transaction for which he has applied, and has had the opportunity to satisfy himself that it is appropriate for him.1(2) In relation to a regulated mortgage contract, the application should identify the type of interest rate, rate of interest, and the mortgage lender at the point it is submitted by the customer
INSPRU 1.5.18 R does not prohibit a firm from identifying other assets as being available to meet the liabilities of its long-term insurance business. It may transfer such other assets to a long-term insurance fund (see INSPRU 1.5.21 R and INSPRU 1.5.22 R ) and the transfer will take effect when it is recorded in the firm's accounting records (see INSPRU 1.5.23 R). After the transfer takes effect, a firm may not transfer the assets out of a long-term insurance fund except where
Where the surplus arising from business is shared between policyholders and shareholders in different ways for different blocks of business, it may be necessary to maintain a separate fund to ensure that policyholders are, and will be, treated fairly. For example, if a proprietary company writes some business on a with-profits basis, this should be written in a with-profits fund separate from any business where the surplus arising from that business is wholly owned by shareho
(1) Where:(a) the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS has submitted the documents required under COLL 11.6.5R (2) and (3); and(b) does not receive the necessary approvals from the FCA by the business day preceding the last day on which the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS can request repurchase or redemption of its units in the master UCITS;the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS must exercise the right to repurchase or redeem its units in the master UCITS
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note: