Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5
41 - 60 of 496 items.
The FCA3 will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:3(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy 2one or more of the recognised body requirements1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or2(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FCA's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations;2 or 3(3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
The appropriate regulator uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:55(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the appropriate regulator has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the
In complying with Principle 11, the appropriate regulator considers that a firm should, in relation to the discharge by the appropriate regulator of its functions under the Act:(1) make itself readily available for meetings with representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator as reasonably requested;(2) give representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator reasonable access to any records, files, tapes or computer systems, which are within the firm's possession
(1) A firm must permit representatives of the appropriate regulator, or persons appointed for the purpose by the appropriate regulator, to have access, with or without notice, during reasonable business hours to any of its business premises in relation to the discharge of the appropriate regulator's functions under the Act or its obligations under the short selling regulation3.(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that its agents, suppliers under material outsourcing
7In complying with Principle 11, the FCA considers that a firm should cooperate with it in providing information for other regulators. Sections 169 (Investigations etc. in support of overseas regulator) of the Act gives the FCA certain statutory powers to obtain information and appoint investigators for overseas regulators if required (see DEPP 7 and EG 3).
Section 34 of the Act states that an incoming EEA firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act if it ceases to be an incoming EEA firm as a result of:(1) having its EEA authorisation withdrawn by its Home State regulator; or(2) ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required; this is relevant to a financial institution that is a subsidiary of a credit institution (of the kind mentioned in Article 345of the CRD5)
Section 341 of the Act (Access to books etc.) provides that an auditor of a firm appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R: (1) has a right of access at all times to the firm's books, accounts and vouchers; and(2) is entitled to require from the firm's officers such information and explanations as he reasonably considers necessary for the performance of his duties as auditor.
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives or, where applicable, tied agents1 gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the appointed representative or tied agent1and entitlement to information and explanations from the appointed representative's or tied agent's1 officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act (see also SUP 12.5.5
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its suppliers under a material outsourcing arrangement gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the firm held by the supplier, and entitlement to information and explanations from the supplier's officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act.
Firms and their officers, managers and controllers are reminded that, under section 346 of the Act (Provision of false or misleading information to auditor or actuary), knowingly or recklessly giving false information to an auditor appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R constitutes an offence in certain circumstances, which could render them liable to prosecution. This applies even when an auditor is also appointed under an obligation in another enactment.
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing
particulars) requires listing particulars submitted
to the FCA to contain all such information as investors
and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect
to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial
position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of
the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
(1) The listing
particulars must contain a summary that
complies with the requirements in section 87A(5) and (6) of the Act and PR 2.1.4 EU to PR 2.1.7 R (as if those requirements
applied to the listing particulars).(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply:(a) in relation to specialist
securities referred to in LR 4.1.1R (2);
or(b) if, in accordance with PR 2.1.3 R,
no summary would be required
in relation to the securities.
A request to the FCA to authorise the omission of specific
information in a particular case must:(1) be in writing from the issuer;(2) identify the specific information
concerned and the specific reasons for the omission; and(3) state why in the issuer's opinion
one or more of the grounds in section 82 of the Act applies.
Sections 250 and 261L11 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations allow the FCA12 to waive the application of certain rules in COLL to:111210(1) a person, as respects a particular AUT, ACS11 or ICVC, on the application or with the consent of that person; and(2) an AUT, ACS11 or ICVC on the application or with the consent of the manager and trustee (in the case of an AUT), the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary (in the case of an ACS)11 or the ICVC and
A number of controls apply under the Act to the promotion of shares or securities that are issued by any body corporate. These controls differ according to whether the person making the promotion is an unauthorised person (see PERG 9.10.2 G) or an authorised person (see PERG 9.10.3 G to PERG 9.10.6 G). In addition, where a body corporate is not an open-ended investment company:(1) the requirements of Prospectus Rules relating to the publication of an approved prospectus may1 apply
The controls under the Act that apply to promotions of shares or securities by unauthorised persons are in section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). These controls apply where an unauthorised person makes a financial promotion in, or from, the United Kingdom that relates to the shares in or securities of any body corporate. The same controls apply regardless of whether the shares or securities being promoted are issued by a body corporate that is an open-ended
Promotions made by authorised persons in the United Kingdom are generally subject to the controls inCOBS 4 (Communicating with clients, including financial promotions).3 However, in the case of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate which is an open-ended investment company, additional controls are imposed by Chapter II of Part XVII of the Act (Restrictions on promotion of collective investment schemes) (see PERG 8.20). Section 238 of the Act (Restrictions on promotion)
There are a number of other exemptions in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Promotion of Collective Investment Schemes) (Exemptions) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1060). In general terms, these exemptions are equivalent to the exemptions from section 21 of the Act that apply to units. There is guidance on those exemptions in PERG 8.20.3 G (Additional restriction on the promotion of collective investment schemes).
7(1) A person carrying on the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme that is constituted as an open-ended investment company will need permission for those activities. In line with section 237(2) of the Act (Other definitions), the operator of a collective investment scheme that is an open-ended investment company is the company itself and therefore the starting point for an open-ended investment company that is incorporated
In determining whether a firm has complied with any provision in or under the Act such as any Principle or other rule, anything that an appointed representative has done or omitted to do as respects the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility will be treated as having been done or omitted to be done by the firm (section 39(4) of the Act ).
In addition to the requirements as to the business test and the link to the United Kingdom, two other essential elements must be present before a person needs authorisation under the Act. The first is that the investments must come within the scope of the system of regulation under the Act (see PERG 2.6). The second is that the activities, carried on in relation to those specified investments, are regulated under the Act (see PERG 2.7). Both investments and activities are defined
The Regulated Activities Order contains exclusions. Exclusions may exist in relation to both the element of investment and the element of activity. Each should therefore be checked carefully. The exclusions that relate to specified investments are considered in PERG 2.6, together with the outline of the specified investments. The exclusions that relate to activities are considered separately from the outline of activities (see PERG 2.8 and PERG 2.9).
It remains the Government's responsibility to ensure the proper implementation of MiFID2. Certain2persons subject to the requirements of MiFID2 must be brought within the scope of regulation under the Act. A core element of MiFID is the concept of investment firm.2 An investment firm is any person whose regular occupation or2 business is2 the provision of one or more2investment services to third parties or the performance of one or more investment activities on a professional
For persons who are MiFID2investment firms, the activities that must be caught by the Regulated Activities Order are those that are caught by MiFID2. To achieve this result, some of the exclusions in the Order (that will apply to persons who are not caught by MiFID2) have been made unavailable to MiFID2investment firms when they provide or perform investment services and activities. A "MiFID investment firm", for these purposes, includes credit institutions to which MiFID applies
The Insurance Mediation Directive has in part been implemented through various amendments to the Regulated Activities Order. These include article 4(4A) (Specified activities: general) which precludes a person who, for remuneration, takes up or pursues insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation in relation to a risk or commitment situated in an EEA State from making use of certain exclusions. In other cases, some of the exclusions provided in relation to particular regulated
Insurance business transfers are subject to Part VII of the Act and must be approved by the court under section 111. The following statutory pieces of legislation also apply:33(1) 3The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Control of Business Transfers) (Requirements on Applicants) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/3625), as amended by the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Control of Business Transfers)(Requirements on Applicants) (Amendment) Regulations 2008 (SI 2008/1467)
An insurance business transfer scheme is defined in section 105 of the Act and the definition has been extended to transfers from underwritingmembers and former members3 of Lloyd's.333(1) [deleted]3(a) [deleted]33(b) [deleted]33(c) [deleted]33(2) [deleted]33The business transferred may include liabilities and potential liabilities on expired policies, liabilities on current policies and liabilities on contracts to be written in the period until the transfer takes effect. The parties
3Legislation in respect of other transactions, for example, cross-border mergers, does not negate the requirements under Part VII of the Act. It is for the firms participating in such transactions to determine whether or not the proposed transfer gives rise to an insurance business transfer. The regulators expect firms proposing such transactions to discuss the proposal with them as soon as practicable.
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FCA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
In the FCA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FCA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FCA's view, there is no realisation of value where
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FCA considers that a reasonable investor
In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
Similarly, if BC issues shares or securities on different terms as to the period within which they are to be redeemed or repurchased (see PERG 9.6.4 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general), BC must be considered as a whole. Whether or not the expectation test is satisfied in relation to a particular body corporate is bound to involve taking account of the terms on which its shares or securities, or classes of shares or securities, are issued. But this
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FCA5, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FCA's5 approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.3353533
The FCA5 will approve an acquisition or an increase in 3control if it is satisfied that the acquisition by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE (see section 301F(4) of the Act). 4The reference to any financial market is to be read as including a reference to any auction platform as a result of the RAP regulations.35333
1This chapter applies to an incoming EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer7 which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom under one of the Single Market Directives or the auction regulation8 and, therefore, qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act.
SUP 14.6 (Cancelling qualification for authorisation), which sets out how to cancel qualification for authorisation under the Act, also applies to:(1) an incoming Treaty firm that qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act; and(2) a UCITS qualifier that is an authorised person under Schedule 5 to the Act; a UCITS qualifier should, however, refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G6 for full details of applicable rules and guidance.26
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order4 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(aa) 10authorised in Gibraltar under the Reinsurance Directive; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the9CRD; or;494(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or4(d) authorised in Gibraltar under MiFID; or1010(e) authorised in Gibraltar under the UCITS
This chapter gives guidance on the Act and the EEA Passport Rights Regulations made under the Act, for an incoming EEA firm which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom and wishes to change the details of the branch or cross border services. [Note: An EEA bank is required to comply with the requirements set out in the directly applicable regulations adopted under Articles 35, 36 and 39 CRD.] 95
Under section 169(1)(b) and section 131FA2 of the Act,
the FCA3 may
appoint an investigator to investigate any matter at the request of an overseas regulator or EEA regulator2. The powers of the investigator appointed by the FCA3 (referred to here as the 'FCA's3 investigator') include the power to require persons to
attend at a specified time and place and answer questions (the compulsory
interview power).333
Where the FCA3 appoints an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator or EEA regulator2 it may, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act,
direct him to permit a representative of that regulator to attend and take
part in any interviews conducted for the purposes of the investigation. The FCA3 may
only give a direction under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 if it is satisfied that any information
obtained by an overseas regulator or EEA
regulator2
Before making a direction under
section 169(7) or section
131FA2 the FCA3 will discuss and determine with the overseas
regulator or EEA regulator2 how this statement of policy will
apply to the conduct of the interview, taking into account all the circumstances
of the case. Amongst other matters, the FCA3 will at this stage determine the extent to which the representative
of the overseas regulator or EEA
regulator2 will be able to participate in
the interview. The overseas regulator
(1) Before an EEA firm5(other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)53exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act,
For the purposes of paragraph 13(2)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the applicable provisions may include the appropriate UK regulator's11rules. The EEA firm is required to comply with relevant rules when carrying on a passported activity through a branch in the United Kingdom as well as with relevant UK legislation.11
(1) When the appropriate regulator11 receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator, it will, under paragraphs 13(2)(b), (c) and 13(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the applicable provisions (if any) to:11(a) the EEA firm; and(b) in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Insurance Directives, the Home State regulator;within two months of the notice2 date.2(1A) The notice date is:2(a) for a MiFID investment firm, the date on which the Home
In addition, under section 290A
of the Act (Refusal of recognition
on ground of excessive regulatory provision), the FCA5 must refuse to make a recognition
order in relation to a body applying for recognition as a UK RIE if it appears to the FCA5 that an existing or proposed regulatory
provision of the applicant in connection with the applicant's
business as an investment exchange or the provision by the applicant of clearing facilitation services5 imposes, or will impose, an
An application should:(1) be
made in accordance with any directions the FCA5 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act or (for RAPs)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations;353355(2) in
the case of an application under section5 287 of the Act, 3be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory
provisions and
in the case of an application under section 287 of the Act information
required pursuant to sub-sections 287(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Act (see
1The
information required pursuant to sub-sections 287(c), (d) and (e) of the Act is:(1) a programme of operations which
includes the types of business the applicant proposes to undertake and the
applicant's proposed organisational structure;(2) particulars of the persons who
effectively direct the business and operations of the exchange; and(3) particulars of the ownership of
the exchange, and in particular the identity and scale of interests of the
persons who are in a position
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary) or (for an RAP applicant)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA5 may
require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the
applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely
importance for any application, the FCA5 will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's
information technology systems.55
1In
the case of an application to become a UK
RIE or an RAP3, under subsection 290(1B) of the Act and
(for an RAP applicant) regulation
2(8) of the RAP regulations3, the application must be determined by the FCA5 before the end of the period of six months beginning
with the date on which it receives the completed application.5
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition
order it will discuss its concerns with
the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to
make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G).
If the FCA5 decides
that it will not make a recognition order,
it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions
and revocation: procedure) or
(in the case of an RAP) regulation
5 of
The circumstances in which the FCA5 may vary a firm'sPart 4A permission5 on
its own initiative or impose
a requirement on a firm5 under sections 55J or 55L5 of the Act include
where it appears to the FCA5 that:5555(1) one
or more of the threshold conditions for which the FCA is
responsible5 is or is likely to be no longer
satisfied; or(2) it
is desirable to vary a firm's permission in order to meet any of the FCA's5 statutory objectives under the Act; or5335(3) a firm has
not
The FCA5 may also use its own-initiative powers5 for
enforcement purposes. EG 82 sets out in detail the FCA's5 powers under sections 55J and 55L of the Act5 and
the circumstances under which the FCA5 may use its own-initiative powers5 in this way, whether for enforcement purposes or as part of its
day to day supervision of firms.
This chapter provides additional guidance on when the FCA5 will use these powers for supervision purposes.55255555
The FCA5 may use its own-initiative powers5 only in respect of a firm's5Part 4A permission5; that is, a permission granted
to a firm under sections 55E or 55F5 of the Act (Giving
permission) or having effect as if so given. In respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming
Treaty firm, or a UCITS qualifier,
this power applies only in relation to any top-up
permission that it has. There are similar but more limited powers
under Part XIII of the Act in
relation to the permission
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But, when there is a cross-border element, for example because a customer is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
Even if a person concludes that he is not carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, he will need to ensure that he does not contravene other provisions of the Act that apply to unauthorised persons. These include the controls on financial promotion (section 21 (Financial promotion) of the Act) (see PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)), and on giving the impression that a person is authorised (section 24 (False claims to be authorised or exempt)).
Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United Kingdom
Needs Part 4A permission |
Schedule 3 EEA passport rights available |
Overseas persons exclusion available |
|
Registered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State) |
No |
Yes |
No |
Registered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border services |
No |
Yes |
Potentially available [see Note] |
Third country intermediary operating from branch in the UK |
Yes |
No |
No |
Third country intermediary providing services in (or into) the UK |
Yes unless overseas persons exclusion applies |
No |
Potentially available |
This does not, however, affect the firm'sauthorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Passporting)). |
|||
3For EEA-based intermediaries this table assumes that the insurance mediation activities are within the scope of the Insurance Mediation Directive. |
|||
In determining the location of an activity, and hence whether it is carried on in the United Kingdom, various factors need to be taken into account in turn, notably:(1) section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom);(2) the nature of the activity; and(3) the overseas persons exclusion (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Overseas persons)).
Section 418 of the Act extends the meaning that 'carry on regulated activity in the United Kingdom' would normally have by setting out additional cases in which a person who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is to be regarded as doing so. Each of the following cases thus amounts to carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom:(1) where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity in another EEA State in the exercise
Article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order (Overseas persons) provides a potential exclusion for persons with no permanent place of business in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are conducted or offers to conduct regulated activities are made. Where these persons carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom, they may be able to take advantage of the exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order. In general terms, these apply where
Within the legal constraints that apply, the appropriate regulator2 may pass on to a skilled person any information which it considers relevant to the skilled person's function. A skilled person, being a primary recipient under section 348 of the Act (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by Authority etc.), is bound by the confidentiality provisions in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) as regards confidential information
The limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplemental provisions) under which a person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations) to disclose information or produce a document subject to banking confidentiality (with exceptions); and (2) section 413 (Protected items), under which no person may be required to produce, disclose or allow the inspection
2In respect of the appointment of a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, a contractual or other requirement imposed on a person to keep any information confidential will not apply if:(1) the information is or may be relevant to anything required to be done as part of the skilled person's appointment under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act;(2) a firm
2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.
24Under section 55H(3) of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person), if an FCA-authorised person applies to the FCA, the FCA may cancel its Part 4A permission. Cancellation applies to a firm's entire Part 4A permission, that is to every activity and every specified investment and not to the individual elements such as specified investments. Changes to the individual elements of a permission would require a variation.
Under section 39824 of the Act (Misleading the FCA or PRA: residual cases),24 it is an offence, in purported compliance with a requirement imposed by or under the Act (including the directions in SUP 6.4.5 D), for a person to knowingly or recklessly give the regulator24 information that is false or misleading. If necessary, a firm should take appropriate professional advice when supplying information required by the regulator(s).24 An insurer, for example, may ask an actuary to
A firm which is applying for cancellation ofPart 4A permission24 and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the appropriate regulator24 of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.24 These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).2424
If an application for cancellation of a firm'sPart 4A permission has been granted and a firm's status as an authorised person has been withdrawn (see SUP 6.5) it will remain subject to certain investigative and enforcement powers as a former authorised person. These include:2424(1) information gathering and investigation powers in Part XI of the Act (Investigation gathering and investigations) (seeEG 3 (Use of information gathering and investigation powers)6);6(2) powers to apply
However, the following powers may not be used24 against former authorised persons:24(1) powers to take disciplinary action against firms by publishing statements of misconduct under section 205 of the Act (Public censure) or imposing financial penalties under section 206(1) of the Act (Financial penalties); and(2) the power to require firms to make restitution under section 384 of the Act (Power of FCA or PRA24 to require restitution).24
(1) Under section 55V(1)24of the Act (Determination of applications), the relevant regulator24 has six months to consider a completed application.2424(2) If the relevant regulator24 receives an application which is incomplete, that is, where information or a document required as part of the application is not provided, section 55V(2) of the Act requires the relevant regulator24 to determine the incomplete application within 12 months of the initial receipt of the application.2424(3)