Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.4C
281 - 300 of 818 items.
General guidance on the perimeter is also contained in various FCA documents (mainly fact sheets and frequently asked questions) that are available on the FCA website at www.fca.org.uk.These documents, and the URL on which they may be accessed, include:(1) [deleted]612446(2) [deleted]212(3) [deleted](4) [deleted]313(5) [deleted]313(6) [deleted]313(7) guidance about the position under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the Regulated Activities Order of the company appointed
Any person who, having read relevant general guidance and, where appropriate, taken legal advice, remains uncertain about whether his activities amount to regulated activities or his communications will be subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act, may seek individual guidance from the FCA. Requests for individual guidance should be made in line with SUP 9.
In addition, the FCA has established a team to provide general assistance and guidance to persons generally about the scope of the Act. Enquiries of this kind may be made:(1) by authorised firms, to either the Contact Centre (email firm.queries@fca.org.uk, Tel 0300 500 05977) or their normal supervisory contact; or77(2) by individuals or non-authorised firms, to the Consumer Contact Centre (email ccc@fca.org.uk, Tel 0800 111 6768 ) or the Perimeter Enquiries Team (email autho
Sections 250 and 261L11 of the Act and regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations allow the FCA12 to waive the application of certain rules in COLL to:111210(1) a person, as respects a particular AUT, ACS11 or ICVC, on the application or with the consent of that person; and(2) an AUT, ACS11 or ICVC on the application or with the consent of the manager and trustee (in the case of an AUT), the authorised contractual scheme manager and depositary (in the case of an ACS)11 or the ICVC and
At least two independent minds should be applied to the formulation and implementation of the policies of a common platform firm, a management company3, a full-scope UK AIFM5 and the UK branch of a non-EEA bank1. Where a firm1 nominates just two individuals to direct its business, the appropriate regulator will not regard them as both effectively directing the business where one of them makes some, albeit significant, decisions relating to only a few aspects of the business.
Where there are more than two individuals directing the business of a common platform firm, a management company3, a full-scope UK AIFM5 or the UK branch of a non-EEA bank,1 the appropriate regulator does not regard it as necessary for all of these individuals to be involved in all decisions relating to the determination of strategy and general direction. However, at least two individuals should be involved in all such decisions. Both individuals' judgement should be engaged
(1) The purpose of this section is to set out the requirements for a firm specified in SUP 16.16.1 R to report the outcomes of its prudent valuation assessments to the appropriate regulator7 and to do so in a standard format.27(2) The purpose of collecting this data on the prudent valuation assessments made by a firm is to assist the appropriate regulator7 in assessing the capital resources of firms, to enable the appropriate regulator7 to gain a wider understanding of the
(1) 7A firm to which this section applies must submit to the appropriate regulator quarterly (on a calendar year basis and not from a firm'saccounting reference date), within six weeks of each quarter end, a Prudent Valuation Return in respect of its fair-value assessments in the format set out in SUP 16 Annex 31A.2(2) 7A PRA-authorised person to which this section applies must submit the report via electronic mail to prudentvaluationreturns@bankofengland.co.uk or via post or
Where a firm to which SUP 16.16.4 R applies is a member of a FCA consolidation group, the firm must comply with SUP 16.16.4 R:(1) on a solo-consolidation basis if the firm has an individual consolidation/solo consolidation permission, or on an unconsolidated basis if the firm does not have an individual consolidation/solo consolidation permission; and(2) separately, on the basis of the consolidated financial position of the FCA consolidation group. (Firms' attention is drawn to
In the FCA's view, for a person to be carrying on the business of advising on investments or advising on a home finance transaction1 he will usually need to be doing so with a degree of regularity and for commercial purposes – that is to say, he will normally be expecting to gain some kind of a direct or indirect financial benefit. But, in the FCA's view it is not necessarily the case that advice provided free of charge will not amount to a business. Advice is often given 'free'
In other circumstances, advice issued remotely may still be given in the United Kingdom. For example, the FCA considers that advice is given in the United Kingdom if:(1) it is contained in a non-UK periodical that is posted in hard copy to persons in the United Kingdom;(2) it is contained in a non-UK periodical (or given in or by way of a service) which is made available electronically to such persons.
Many people may be involved in the production of a periodical publication, news service or broadcast. But if the regulated activity of advising on investments or advising on a home finance transaction1 is being carried on so that authorisation is required, the FCA's view is that the person carrying on the activity (and who will require authorisation) is the person whose business it is to have the editorial control over the content. In the case of a periodical publication, this
(1) Section 55C of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Power to amend Schedule 6) gave HM Treasury the power to amend Schedule 6 of the Act. HM Treasury exercised this power by making The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Threshold Conditions) Order 2013 which entered into force on 1 April 2013 (the "TC Order"). The TC Order's main result is the creation of four sets of threshold conditions, namely:(i) conditions for firms authorised and regulated by the FCA only (paragraphs
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
COND applies to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms as set out below:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which does not carry on any PRA-regulated activities, FCAthreshold conditions 2C to 2F apply; and(2) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which carries on a PRA-regulated activity, FCAthreshold conditions 3B to 3E apply.FCAthreshold conditions apply to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms only in as far as relevant to the
(1) 2The FCAthreshold conditions apply to a person that carries on, or seeks to carry on, only relevant credit activities (within paragraph 2G of Schedule 6 to the Act) and which therefore has, or is applying for, limited permission with a number of modifications (see article 10(19) of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order). Regulated activities a person carries on in relation to which sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply as a result of section 39(1D)
The fact that there is a person performing the apportionment and oversight function, and who has responsibility for activities subject to regulation by the FCA, may have a bearing on whether a manager who is based overseas will be performing an FCA controlled function. It is a factor to take into account when assessing the likely influence of the overseas manager.
Generally, in relation to a UK establishment of an overseas firm or a firm which is part of an overseas group, where an overseas manager’s responsibilities in relation to the United Kingdom are strategic only, he will not need to be an FCA-approved person. However, where, in accordance with SYSC 3 or SYSC 4 to SYSC 10, he is responsible for implementing that strategy in the United Kingdom, and has not delegated that responsibility to a senior manager in the United Kingdom, he
7This chapter applies to every:(1) firm or person who is subject to FCArules that wishes to apply for, consent to, or has been given a modification of or waiver of the FCA'srules; (2) person, as respects a particular AUT, ACS6 or ICVC, who wishes to apply for, consent to, or has been given a modification of or waiver of the rules in COLL.
This chapter is relevant to an applicant for a Part 4A permission7, as if that applicant were a firm. Where the chapter refers to appropriate7supervisory contact, the applicant should read this as being the usual supervisory7contact at7 the appropriate regulator7. Further, this chapter is relevant to a person who is subject to rules made by the appropriate regulator7 and where the chapter refers to a firm, this includes that person5.177577
1To comply with paragraph 130 of the ESMA Prospectus Recommendations,3 the FCA would expect a valuation report for a property company to be in accordance with either:123(1) the Appraisal and Valuation Standards (5th edition) issued by the Royal Institution of Chartered Surveyors; or(2) the International Valuation Standards (7th edition) issued by the International Valuation Standards Committee.
(1) Section 333R(1) of the Act requires the Treasury to notify the FCA of the amount of the Treasury’s pensions guidance costs.(2) Section 333R(2) requires the FCA to make rules requiring authorised persons to pay amounts, or amounts calculated in a specified way, to the FCA with a view to recovering the amounts notified by the Treasury.(3) Under subsection 3 such amounts may include a component to cover the expenses of the FCA in collecting the payments.
(1) A Chief Risk Officer should:(a) be accountable to the firm'sgoverning body for oversight of firm-wide risk management;(b) be fully independent of a firm's individual business units;(c) have sufficient authority, stature and resources for the effective execution of his responsibilities; (d) have unfettered access to any parts of the firm's business capable of having an impact on the firm's risk profile; (e) ensure that the data used by the firm to assess its risks are fit for
(1) The Chief Risk Officer should be accountable to a firm'sgoverning body.(2) The appropriate regulator recognises that in addition to the Chief Risk Officers primary accountability to the governing body, an executive reporting line will be necessary for operational purposes. Accordingly, to the extent necessary for effective operational management, the Chief Risk Officer should report into a very senior executive level in the firm. In practice, the appropriate regulator expects
(1) The appropriate regulator considers that, while the firm'sgoverning body is ultimately responsible for risk governance throughout the business, firms should consider establishing a governing body risk committee to provide focused support and advice on risk governance.(2) Where a firm has established a governing body risk committee, its responsibilities will typically include:(a) providing advice to the firm'sgoverning body on risk strategy, including the oversight of current
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FCA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FCA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
1This table belongs to COLL 7.4.1 G (4) (Explanation of COLL 7.4)
Summary of the main steps in winding up an AUT or terminating a sub-fund under FCArules Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 251 of the Act. E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period (COLL 7.4.5 R (4)) |
|||
Step number |
Explanation |
When |
|
1 |
Receive FCA approval |
N + one month On receipt of notice from the FCA |
Section 251 of the Act |
2 |
Normal business ceases; notify unitholders |
E |
7.4.3R |
3 |
Trustee to realise and distribute proceeds |
ASAP after E |
7.4.4R(1) to (5) |
4 |
Within 4 months of FAP |
7.4.5R(5) |
|
5 |
Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order |
On completion of W/U |
7.4.4R(6) |
(1) Where COLL 7.4.3 R (2) (f) applies, the trustee must cancel all units in issue and1 wind up the AUT or terminate the sub-fund in accordance with the approved scheme of arrangement.(2) In any other case falling within COLL 7.4.3 R:(a) once the AUT falls to be wound up or sub-fund terminated, the trustee must realise the scheme property;(b) after paying out or retaining adequate provision for all liabilities payable and for the costs of the winding up or termination, the trustee
(1) For any annual or half-yearly accounting period which begins1 after commencement of the winding up or termination, the manager is not required to prepare a short report (COLL 4.5.13 R (Provision of short report)), provided that it has reasonably determined1 that the report is not required in the interests of the unitholders.11(1A) The manager must consult the trustee before determining that a short report is not required in the interests of unitholders.1(2) Where (1) applies,
Neither assisting in the administration nor assisting in the performance of a contract alone will fall within this activity. Generally, an activity will either amount to assisting in the administration or assisting in the performance but not both. Occasionally, however, an activity may amount to both assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. For example, where a person assists a claimant in filling in a claims form, in the FCA's view this amounts
Put another way, where an intermediary's assistance in filling in a claims form is material to whether performance takes place of the contractual obligation to notify claims, it is more likely to amount to assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. Conversely, in the FCA's view, a person who merely gives pointers about how to fill in the claims form or merely supplies information in support of a claim will not be assisting in the performance of
More generally, an example of an activity that, in the FCA's view, is likely to amount to assisting a policyholder in both the administration and the performance of a contract of insurance is notifying a claim under a policy and then providing evidence in support of the claim, or helping negotiate its settlement on the policyholder's behalf. Notifying an insurance undertaking of a claim assists the policyholder in discharging his contractual obligation to do so (assisting in the
Where a person receives funds on behalf of a policyholder in settlement of a claim, in the FCA's view, the act of receipt is likely to amount to assisting in the performance of a contract. By giving valid receipt, the person assists the insurance undertaking to discharge its contractual obligation to provide compensation to the policyholder. He may also be assisting the policyholder to discharge any obligations he may have under the contract to provide valid receipt of funds,
2The FCA3 will seek to deprive an individual of the financial benefit derived directly from the breach (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FCA3 will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit. Where the success of a firm’s entire business model is dependent on breaching FCA3rules or other requirements of the regulatory system and the individual’s breach is at the core of the firm’s regulated activities, the FCA3
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
(1) The FCA3 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.3(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the individual in bringing (or
(1) If the FCA3 considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the individual who committed the breach, or others, from committing further or similar breaches then the FCA3 may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FCA3 may do this include:333(a) where the FCA3 considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the breach to meet its objective of credible deterrence;3(b) where previous FCA3 action in respect of similar breaches
The FCA3 and the individual on whom a penalty is to be imposed may seek to agree the amount of any financial penalty and other terms. In recognition of the benefits of such agreements, DEPP 6.7 provides that the amount of the financial penalty which might otherwise have been payable will be reduced to reflect the stage at which the FCA3 and the individual concerned reached an agreement. The settlement discount does not apply to the disgorgement of any benefit calculated at Step
1This section applies to a firm or qualifying parent undertaking who is required to send any of the following types of information to the FCA: (1) recovery plans in line with IFPRU 11.2 (Individual recovery plans); or(2) group recovery plans in line with IFPRU 11.3 (Group recovery plans); or(3) information required for resolution plans in line with IFPRU 11.4 (Information for resolution plans).
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must send its recovery plan or group recovery plan to the FCA within three months of the reporting reference dates specified in the table below:
Type of firm or qualifying parent undertaking |
Type of plan |
Total balance sheet assets (see SUP 16.20.3 G) |
First reporting reference date |
Ongoing reporting reference date |
firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm or does not include an IFPRU 730k firm |
More than £2.5 billion |
30 June 2015 |
Every year on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
|
More than £1 billion and less than £2.5 billion |
30 September 2015 |
|||
More than £500 million and less than £1 billion |
31 December 2015 |
|||
Less than £500 million |
31 March 2016 |
|||
More than £2.5 billion |
30 June 2015 |
Every year on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
||
More than £1 billion and less than £2.5 billion |
30 September 2015 |
|||
More than £500 million and less than £1 billion |
31 December 2015 |
|||
Less than £500 million |
31 March 2016 |
|||
firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is not a significant IFPRU firm (but does not include an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm) |
More than £50 million and less than £500 million |
30 September 2015 |
Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
|
More than £15 million and less than £50 million |
31 December 2015 |
|||
More than £5 million and less than £15 million |
31 March 2016 |
|||
Less than £5 million |
30 June 2016 |
|||
More than £50 million and less than £500 million |
30 September 2015 |
Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
||
More than £15 million and less than £50 million |
31 December 2015 |
|||
More than £5 million and less than £15 million |
31 March 2016 |
|||
Less than £5 million |
30 June 2016 |
[Note: articles 4(1)(b) and 6(1) of RRD]
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must send the information required for a resolution plan to the FCA within three months of the reporting reference dates specified in the table below:
Type of firm or qualifying parent undertaking |
First reporting reference date |
Ongoing reporting reference date |
firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm or does not include an IFPRU 730k firm |
30 June 2015 |
Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
30 June 2015 |
Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
|
firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is not a significant IFPRU firm (but does not include an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm) |
31 December 2015 |
Every three years on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
31 December 2015 |
Every three years on the same date as the first reporting reference date. |
[Note:articles 4(1)(b), 11(1) and 13(1) of RRD]
1If the FCA concludes that it should grant an FCA-authorised person's application for cancellation of permission and end its authorisation, the FCA will:(1) cancel the firm'sPart 4A permission under section 55H(3) of the Act;(2) withdraw the firm'sauthorised status under section 33(2) of the Act by giving the firm a direction in writing; and(3) update the firm's entry in the Financial Services Register to show it has ceased to be authorised.
(1) Every credit union must send to the PRA a copy of its audited accounts published in accordance with section 3A of the Friendly and Industrial and Provident Societies Act 1968 or provided in accordance with article 49 of the Credit Unions (Northern Ireland) Order 1985.1(2) The accounts must: (a) be made up for the period beginning with the date of the credit union's registration or with the date to which the credit union's last annual accounts were made up, whichever is the
A credit union must provide the FCA, once a year, with a report in the format set out in CREDS 9 Annex 1 R (Credit Union complaints return) which contains (for the relevant reporting period) information about:(1) the total number of complaints received by the credit union;(2) (for the product/service groupings within section 5)3 the number of complaints closed by the credit union:(a) within eight weeks of receipt; and(b) more than eight weeks after receipt;(2A) (for other lending
A report under this section must be given or addressed, and delivered, in the way set out in SUP 16.3.6 R to SUP 16.3.16 G (General provisions on reporting), except that, instead of the credit union's usual supervisory contact, the report must be given to or addressed for the attention of the Central Reporting team at the FCA.22
The deterrent effect and impact
on a person of a suspension
or restriction, by itself or in combination with a financial penalty, may
be greater than where only a financial penalty is imposed. The FCA1 will consider the overall impact and deterrent effect of the
sanctions it imposes when determining the level of penalty and the length
of suspension or restriction.1
The FCA1 expects usually to take the following approach in respect of
the interaction between a suspension or restriction and a financial penalty
or public censure:1(1) The FCA1 will determine which sanction, or combination of sanctions, is
appropriate for the breach.1(2) If the FCA1, following the approach set out in DEPP 6.2, considers it appropriate
to impose a financial penalty, it will calculate the appropriate level of
the financial penalty, following the approach set out
The FCA1 may depart from the approach set out in DEPP 6A.4.2 G.
For example, the FCA1 may
at the outset consider that a financial penalty is the only appropriate sanction
for a breach but, having determined
the appropriate level of financial penalty, may consider it appropriate to
reduce the amount of the financial penalty for serious financial hardship
reasons. In such a situation, the FCA1 may consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction
even if the FCA1 at
the
With one exception, a5person is exempt if he is an appointed representative of an authorised person. In some circumstances, however, a person may be an appointed representative and not be exempt, if the person has a limited permission for certain credit-related regulated activities.5 See SUP 12 (Appointed representatives). But where an appointed representative carries on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation he will not be exempt unless he is included on the register
But under section 316 of the Act (Direction by a regulator) the general prohibition does not apply to a person who is a member of the Society of Lloyds unless the FCA or PRA has made a direction that it should apply. The general prohibition is disapplied in relation to any regulated activity carried on by a member relating to contracts of insurance written at Lloyds. Directions can be made by the FCA or PRA in relation to individual members or the members of the Society of Lloyds
Such a person may carry on regulated activities if the conditions outlined below are met, that is the person:(1) is not affected by an order or direction made by the FCA under section 328 or 329 of the Act (Directions and orders in relation to the general prohibition) which has the effect of re-imposing the general prohibition in any particular case;(2) is, or is controlled by, a member of a profession;(3) does not receive any pecuniary reward or other advantage from the regulated
A person carrying on regulated activities under the regime for members of the professions will be subject to rules made by the professional body designated by the Treasury. Such bodies are obliged to make rules governing the carrying on by their members of those regulated activities that they are able to carry on without authorisation under the Act. Where such a person is carrying on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation, he must also be included on the register kept by