Related provisions for REC 6.5.1
181 - 200 of 383 items.
(1) 7In SUP 6 the "relevant regulator" is the regulator to which a firm with a Part 4A permission has made or can make (in accordance with SUP 6) an application to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission or to have imposed on it a new requirement or to vary or cancel any existing requirement (see SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G).(2) Where the PRA can only determine an application with the consent of the FCA, the FCA may request further information as if it were the relevant regulator.(3)
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
(1) The FCA3 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.3(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the individual in bringing (or
The arrangements which grant rights under alternative debentures are similar to the tax definition of arrangements relating to alternative finance investment bonds at section 48A of the Finance Act 2005 (see www.opsi.gov.uk/acts/acts2007/ukpga_20070011_en_5#pt3-pb9-l1g53). However the purposes of the two provisions are not the same. One of the objectives of the FCA under the Act is consumer protection. Accordingly, secondary legislation made under the Act, like article 77A
UK UCITS management companies are advised that when they applied for authorisation from the FCA under the Act, their ability to comply with the requirements in COLL 6.12.7 R would have been assessed by the FCA as an aspect of their fitness and properness in determining whether the threshold conditions set out in Schedule 6 (Threshold conditions) of the Act were met. Firms are further advised that their compliance with these requirements is subject to review by the FCA on an ongoing
The Principles are a general statement of the fundamental obligations of firms under the regulatory system. This includes provisions which implement the Single Market Directives.5 They derive their authority from the appropriate regulator's rule-making powers as set out in the Act and reflect the statutory objectives.3
Regulation 44 of the RCB Regulations (Warning notices and decision
notices) applies Part XXVI of the Act (Notices)
in respect of notices that we give under the RCB
Regulations. This means that the provisions of section 393
of the Act (Third party rights)
and section 394 of the Act (Access
to Authority material) apply to penalty procedures under the RCB Regulations and that, if the matter
is not referred to the Tribunal,
then upon taking the action to which a decision
notice relates,
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A
1(1) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must also operate a regulated market. |
|||
(2) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must comply with those requirements of- |
|||
(a) |
Chapter I of Title II of [MiFID], and |
|||
(b) |
||||
which are applicable to a market operator ... operating such a facility. |
||||
(3) |
The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses). |
|||
SUP 15.4.1 R is not made under the powers conferred on the appropriate regulator8 by Part V of the Act (Performance of Regulated Activities). A person notified to the appropriate regulator8 under SUP 15.4.1 R is not subject to the Statements of Principle or Code of Practice for Approved Persons, unless he is also an approved person.88
Section 236(3) uses the words "the investor would, if he were to participate in the scheme". This is consistent with the fact that the reasonable investor is hypothetical. But applying the test at this early stage makes it clear that there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could base the expectation in section 236(3)(a). And on which he could be satisfied on the matters in section 236(3)(b). In the FCA's view, this requires, for example,
Under article 53 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013, any of the following given or made by the Office of Fair Trading which were in effect immediately before 1 April 2014 have effect as if they had been given or made by the FCA:(1) a direction given under section 60(3) of the CCA (form and content of agreements);(2) a determination made under section 64(4) of the CCA (duty to give notice of cancellation rights) and
The appropriate regulator9 recognises that there may be occasions when, because of a particular emergency, a person (generally a firm, but in certain circumstances, for example in relation to price stabilising rules, an unauthorised person) may be unable to comply with a particular rule in the Handbook. The purpose of GEN 1.3.2 R is to provide appropriate relief from the consequences of contravention of such a rule in those circumstances.193
(1) The FCA may dispense with or modify the listing rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of EU directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer or sponsor has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the relevance