Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4
321 - 340 of 448 items.
(1) The instrument constituting the fund14 must not contain any provision that:14(a) conflicts with any rule in this sourcebook;(b) prevents units in the scheme being marketed in the United Kingdom; or(c) is unfairly prejudicial to the interests of unitholders generally or to the unitholders of any class of units.(2) Any power conferred by the rules on the ICVC, the authorised fund manager, any other director of the ICVC, or the depositary, whether in a sole or joint capacity,
A firm must ensure that a financial promotion or a communication with a customer (to the extent a previous communication to the same customer has not included the following information) includes:(1) a statement of the services the firm offers;(2) a statement of any relationship with a business associate which is relevant to the services offered in the promotion; [Note: paragraph 2.5a of DMG](3) a statement setting out the level of fees charged for the firm's services, how they
Where the firm is a member of:(1) an insurance group, in respect of which it is required to maintain group capital;(2) a UK consolidation group; or(3) a non-EEA sub-group;it must conduct the reverse stress test on a solo basis as well as on a consolidated basis in relation to the insurance group, the UK consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group, as the case may be.
The following Tables 1, 2, 2ZA 7 2A and 2B1 provide an outline of the regulated activities and specified investments that may be of relevance to firms considering undertaking passported activities under the CRD6, 1MiFID3, AIFMD7, the UCITS Directive and the Insurance Mediation Directive.1 The tables may be of assistance to UK firms that are thinking of offering financial services in another EEA State and to EEA firms that may offer those services in the United Kingdom.16131
Of potentially greater significance is the exclusion in article 33 of the Regulated Activities Order which excludes arrangements where:(1) they are arrangements under which persons will be introduced to another person;(2) the person to whom introductions are to be made is:(a) an authorised person; or(b) an exempt person acting in the course of business comprising a regulated activity in relation to which he is exempt; or(c) a person who is not unlawfully carrying on regulated
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the appropriate regulator8 within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:8(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with
(1) 1A’s business model (that is, A’s strategy for doing business) must be suitable for a person carrying on the regulated activities that A carries on or seeks to carry on.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether A satisfies the condition in sub-paragraph (1) include-(a) whether the business model is compatible with A’s affairs being conducted, and continuing to be conducted, in a sound and prudent manner;(b) the interests of consumers;(c) the integrity of the
In addition to the requirements in BIPRU 13.7.2 R to BIPRU 13.7.9 R, for contractual cross product netting agreements the following criteria must be met:(1) the net sum referred to in BIPRU 13.7.6 R (1) must be the net sum of the positive and negative close out values of any included individual bilateral master agreement and of the positive and negative mark-to-market value of the individual transactions (the Cross-Product Net Amount);(2) the written and reasoned legal opinions
Article 33 of the Regulated Activities Order (Introducing) excludes arrangements which would otherwise fall under article 25(2) where:(1) they are arrangements under which persons will be introduced to another person;(2) the person to whom introductions are to be made is:(a) an authorised person; or(b) an exempt person acting in the course of business comprising a regulated activity in relation to which he is exempt; or(c) a person who is not unlawfully carrying on regulated activities
The firm is responsible for ensuring delivery of the required report at the by the due date. If a report is received by the appropriate regulator49after the due date and the firm believes its delivery arrangements were adequate, it may be required to provide proof of those arrangements. Examples of such proof would be:4949(1) "proof of posting" receipts from a UK post office or overseas equivalent which demonstrates that the report was posted early enough to allow delivery by
A UK domestic firm,4 other than a non-directive firm, 4must notify the appropriate regulator6 of any of the following events concerning the firm:146(1) a person acquiring control;4(2) an existing controller increasing control4; 4(3) an existing controller reducing control4; 4(4) an existing controller ceasing to have control4.44
In relation to an incoming EEA firm or third country BIPRU firm, where the appropriate regulator gives that firmindividual liquidity guidance in relation to its UKbranch, it will have regard to the liquidity risk profile of the branch. In the absence of a whole-firm liquidity modification, the effect of BIPRU 12.2.1R (2)(b) and BIPRU 12.2.3 R is to require the firm to hold a liquid assets buffer of the amount identified as appropriate in its individual liquidity guidance (or in
(1) 3A firm must, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, regularly provide the appropriate regulator with details on the financial conglomerate's legal structure and governance and organisational structure, including all regulated entities, non-regulated subsidiaries and significant branches.(2) A firm must disclose publicly, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, on an annual basis, either in full or by way of references to equivalent information, a description
In considering a person's repute the firm must ensure that the person:(1) has not been convicted of any serious criminal offences linked to crimes against property or other crimes related to financial activities (other than spent convictions under the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 or any other national equivalent); and(2) has not been adjudged bankrupt (unless the bankruptcy has been discharged);under the law of any part of the United Kingdom or under the law of a country