Related provisions for PERG 6.7.11

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SYSC 19C.1.1AGRP
1The AIFM Remuneration Code (SYSC 19B) also applies to a BIPRU firm which is a full-scope UK AIFM (ie, a full-scope UK AIFM that is an AIFM investment firm subject to BIPRU). Such a full-scope UK AIFM that complies with SYSC 19B will also comply with SYSC 19C. In such cases, the FCA will not require the full-scope UK AIFM to demonstrate compliance with SYSC 19C.
SYSC 19C.1.4GRP
Subject to the requirements of SYSC 19C.1.5 R, in the FCA's view SYSC 19C.1.3 R does not require a firm to breach requirements of applicable contract or employment law.
SYSC 19C.1.7GRP
(1) The BIPRU Remuneration Code does not contain specific notification requirements. However, general circumstances in which the FCA expects to be notified by firms of matters relating to their compliance with requirements under the regulatory system are set out in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements). (2) In particular, in relation to remuneration matters, such circumstances should take into account unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and the activities
SYSC 19C.1.8GRP
The FCA's policy on individual guidance is set out in SUP 9. Firms should particularly note the policy on what the FCA considers to be a reasonable request for guidance (see SUP 9.2.5 G). For example, where a firm is seeking guidance on a proposed remuneration structure, the FCA will expect the firm to provide a detailed analysis of how the structure complies with the BIPRU Remuneration Code, including the general requirement for remuneration policies, procedures and practices
COLL 7.4A.1GRP
(1) 1This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an ACS is to be wound up or a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme is to be terminated otherwise than by the court as an unregistered company under the Insolvency Act 1986 or the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (further rules regarding schemes of arrangement are found in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement)).(2) An ACS may be wound up under this section only if it is solvent. Under section 261W of the Act (Requests
COLL 7.4A.3GRP

This table belongs to COLL 7.4A.1G (5) (Explanation of COLL 7.4A)

Summary of the main steps in winding up an ACS or terminating a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme under FCArules

Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 261Q of the Act in a section 261Q case.

R = Request to wind up the scheme under section 261W of the Act in a section 261W case.

E = commencement of winding up or termination

W/U = winding up

FAP = final accounting period

Step number

Explanation

When

COLLrule, (unless stated otherwise)

1

Commence preparation of solvency statement

N-28 days or R-28 days

7.4A.5R(2)

2

Send audited solvency statement to the FCA with copy to depositary.

By N + 21 days or by R + 21 days

7.4A.5R(4) and (5)

3

In a section 261Q case:

- the authorised contractual scheme manager receiving FCA approval;

- or one month having passed after submitting the requisite notice under section 261Q of the Act without the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary having received from the FCA a warning notice under section 261R in respect of the proposal.

In a section 261W case, the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary receives an indication from the FCA that, subject to there being no change in any relevant factor, on the conclusion of the winding up of the ACS, the FCA will agree to the request to wind up the ACS.

N + one month or R + one month

Section 261Q of the Act (in a section 261Q case)

7.4A.4R(3)(c) to (e) (in a section 261W case)

4

Normal business ceases; notify unitholders

E

7.4A.4R

5

Depositary to realise and distribute proceeds

ASAP after E

7.4A.6R(1)-(5)

6

Send annual long report of authorised contractual scheme manager, depositary and auditor to the FCA

Within 4 months of FAP

7.4A.9R(7)

7

Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order

On completion of W/U

7.4A.6R(6)
COLL 7.4A.4RRP
(1) Upon the happening of any of the matters or dates referred to in (3), and subject to the requirement of (4) being satisfied, and not otherwise:(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3(Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the ACS or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme; (b) the depositary must cease to issue and cancelunits, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4A.6R
COLL 7.4A.5RRP
(1) Either before notice is given under section 261Q of the Act or before a request is made under section 261W of the Act in relation to the proposals referred to in COLL 7.4A.4R (4), the authorised contractual scheme manager must make a full inquiry into the ACS's (or, in the case of the termination of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme, the sub-fund's) affairs, business and property to establish whether the ACS or the sub-fund will be able to meet all its liabilities.(2) The
COLL 7.4A.6RRP
(1) Where COLL 7.4A.4R (3)(f) applies, the depositary must cancel all units in issue and wind up the ACS or terminate the sub-fund of the co-ownership scheme in accordance with the approved scheme of arrangement.(2) In any other case falling within COLL 7.4A.4 R:(a) once the ACS falls to be wound up or sub-fund terminated, the depositary must realise the scheme property;(b) after paying out or retaining adequate provision for all liabilities payable and for the costs of the winding
COLL 7.4A.9RRP
(1) For any annual or half-yearly accounting period which begins after commencement of the winding up or termination, the authorised contractual scheme manager is not required to prepare a short report (COLL 4.5.13R (Provision of short report)), provided that it has reasonably determined that the report is not required in the interests of the unitholders.(2) The authorised contractual scheme manager must consult the depositary before determining that a short report is not required
IFPRU 1.2.2GRP
The articles in IFPRU 1.2.1 G do not always carry the same wording in describing what may be significant in terms of a firm's scope, nature, scale, internal organisation and complexity, but the articles have a general policy to restrict the application of those requirements to institutions which pose higher risks by virtue of broadly their size, types of business and complexity of activities. The FCA's policy is to apply an objective definition with pre-defined thresholds to determine
IFPRU 1.2.4RRP
(1) This rule defines some of the terms used in IFPRU 1.2.3 R.(2) "Total assets" means the firm's total assets(a) set out in the most recent relevant report submitted to the FCA under SUP 16.12 (Integrated regulatory reporting); or (b) (where the firm carries out the assessment under this rule at any time after the date of its most recent report in (a)) as the firm would report to the FCA in accordance with the relevant report, as if the reporting period for that report ends on
IFPRU 1.2.8GRP
The FCA may, on a case-by-case basis, require a firm which does not meet any of the conditions in IFPRU 1.2.3 R to comply with the rules and requirements that apply to a significant IFPRU firm if the FCA considers it appropriate to do so to meet its strategic objective or to advance one or more of its operational objectives under the Act.
IFPRU 1.2.9GRP
(1) A firm may apply to the FCA under section 138A of the Act to waive any one or more of the conditions in IFPRU 1.2.3 R if it believes that one or more of the governance requirements in (2) that apply to a significant IFPRU firm may be disproportionate to it. In its application for such waiver, the FCA expects the firm to demonstrate, taking into account size, nature, scope and complexity of its activities in the context of it being a member of a group and the internal organisation
REC 2.14.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has appropriate procedures for it to make rules, for keeping its rules under review and for amending them, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the arrangements made for taking decisions about making and amending rules in the UK recognised body, including the level at which the decisions are taken and any provision for the delegation of decisions by the governing body;(2) the arrangements made for determining whether or not it is appropriate
REC 2.14.4GRP
(1) In determining whether a UK recognised body's procedures include procedures for consulting users of its facilities in appropriate cases, the FCA3 may have regard to whether those procedures include provision for consulting users of those facilities before changes are made to any rules relating to its regulatory functions. 3(2) In the FCA's3 view, a UK recognised body's procedures may not need to contain provision for consulting users of its facilities before making minor changes
REC 2.14.5GRP
(1) In determining whether a UK recognised body's procedures for consulting members and other users of its facilities are appropriate, the FCA3 may have regard to the range of persons to be consulted by the UK recognised body under those procedures. 3(2) In the FCA's3 view, consultation with a smaller range of persons may be appropriate where limited, technical changes to a UK recognised body's rules are proposed.3(3) In the FCA's3 view, a UK recognised body's procedures may include
REC 2.14.6GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body's procedures for consulting members and other users of its facilities are appropriate, the FCA3 may have regard to the extent to which the procedures include:3(1) informal discussions at an early stage with users of its facilities or appropriate representative bodies; (2) publication to users of its facilities of a formal consultation paper which includes clearly expressed reasons for the proposed changes and an appropriately detailed
REC 6A.2.1GRP
1Under section 312B of the Act, the FCA5 may prohibit an EEA market operator from making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market, or multilateral trading facility, operated by the operator if:5(1) the FCA5 has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator has contravened a relevant requirement, and5(2) the FCA5 has first complied with sections 312B(3) to (9) of the Act.5
REC 6A.2.3GRP
The procedure the FCA5 will follow if it is to exercise this prohibition power is set out in sections 313B(3) to (9) of the Act.5
REC 6A.2.4GRP
If the FCA5 exercises this prohibition power it must at the earliest opportunity notify the Commission and ESMA4 of the action taken in relation to the operator.5
REC 6A.2.5GRP
The operator's exempt person status ceases to apply if the FCA5 exercises this prohibition power.5
REC 6A.2.6GRP
The operator's right to make arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market, or multilateral trading facility, operated by the operator may be reinstated (together with its exempt person status) if the FCA5 is satisfied that the contravention which led the FCA5 to exercise its prohibition power has been remedied.55
SUP 2.4.2GRP
The FCA uses mystery shopping to help it protect consumers. This may be by seeking information about a particular practice across a range of firms (SUP 2.4.3 G (1)) or the practices of a particular firm (SUP 2.4.3 G (2)). One of the risks consumers face is that they may be sold financial products which are inappropriate to them. A problem in protecting consumers from this risk is that it is very difficult to establish after the event what a firm has said to a 'genuine' consumer
SUP 2.4.3GRP
The FCA may carry out mystery shopping:(1) together with a programme of visits to obtain information about a particular practice, looking at a particular issue across a range of firms, when the FCA may advise the firms of the issues beforehand; the practice being scrutinised may be that of firms or a class of firms in carrying on regulated activities or ancillary activities or in communicating or approving financial promotions; (2) together with focused visits (concentrating on
SUP 2.4.4GRP
Telephone calls and meetings held during mystery shopping will be recorded. The FCA expects that any mystery shopping it arranges will be conducted in accordance with the Market Research Society Code of Practice.
SUP 2.4.5GRP
1The FCA may use the information it obtains from mystery shopping in support of both its supervisory functions and its enforcement functions. This includes sharing any information so obtained with firms and approved persons.
CASS 1A.3.1ARRP
1A CASS medium firm and a CASS large firm must allocate to a director or senior manager the function of:(1) oversight of the operational effectiveness of that firm’s systems and controls that are designed to achieve compliance with CASS;(2) reporting to the firm’sgoverning body in respect of that oversight; and(3) completing and submitting a CMAR to the FCA in accordance with SUP 16.14.
CASS 1A.3.1BGRP
1CASS 1A.3.1A R describes the controlled function known as the CASS operational oversight function. The table of controlled functions in SUP 10.4.5 R together with SUP 10.7.9 R specify the CASS operational oversight function as a required function for a firm to which CASS 1A.3.1A R applies.
CASS 1A.3.1CRRP
2If, at the time a firm becomes a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm in accordance with CASS 1A.2.12 R (1) or CASS 1A.2.12 R (2), the firm is not able to comply with CASS 1A.3.1A R because it has no director or senior manager who is an approved person in respect of the CASS operational oversight function, the firm must:(1) take the necessary steps to ensure that it complies with CASS 1A.3.1A R as soon as practicable, which must at least include submitting an application for
LR 13.5.3DGRP
2The FCA may dispense with the requirement for an independent valuation under LR 13.5.3C R if it considers that this would not provide useful information for shareholders, in which case the class 1 circular must include such information as the FCA specifies.
LR 13.5.17BGRP
2For the purposes of assessing whether the financial information presented in accordance with LR 13.5.17A R represents at least 75% of the enlarged target the FCA will take into account factors such as the assets, profitability and market capitalisation of the business.
LR 13.5.27AGRP
2The FCA will make its assessment of whether the accounting and other standards applicable to an investment exchange or multilateral trading facility as a result of securities being admitted to trading are appropriate for the purpose of LR 13.5.27R (1)(b) having regard to at least the following matters in relation to the legal and regulatory framework applying to the target by virtue of its admission to that market:(1) the quality of auditing standards compared with International
LR 13.5.27BRRP
2Where a listed company proposes to rely on LR 13.5.27R (1)(b), its sponsor must submit to the FCA an assessment of the appropriateness of the standards applicable to an investment exchange or multilateral trading facility against the factors set out in LR 13.5.27AG (1) to (7) and any other matters that it considers should be noted. The assessment must be submitted before or at the time the listed company submits the draft class 1 circular.
LR 13.5.27CRRP
2The FCA may grant a dispensation from LR 13.5.27R (1) to allow the application of LR 13.5.27R (2) where a modified report on the target's financial information has been produced. In such circumstances the FCA will have regard to the factors set out in LR 6.1.3A G.
LR 13.5.30DGRP
2The FCA may modify LR 13.5.30BR (1)(b) and (c) where it is not possible for the listed company to provide a meaningful allocation of its costs in the target's audited consolidated income statements. The class 1 circular should contain a statement to this effect where this modification has been granted. The FCA would not normally expect to grant such modifications except in respect of non-operating costs such as finance costs and tax.
LR 13.5.33BGRP
2For the purposes of LR 13.5.33R (1) a significant part of the listed company or target is any part that represents over 75% of the listed company's group or the target respectively. For these purposes the FCA will take into account factors such as the assets, profitability and market capitalisation of the business.
LR 5.4.2RRP
The FCA may restore the listing of any securities that have been suspended if it considers that the smooth operation of the market is no longer jeopardised or if the suspension is no longer required to protect investors. The FCA may restore the listing even though the issuer does not request it.
LR 5.4.3GRP
(1) An issuer that has the listing of any of its securities suspended may request the FCA to have them restored.(2) The request should be made sufficiently in advance of the time and date the issuer wishes the securities to be restored.(3) Requests received for when the market opens should allow sufficient time for the FCA to deal with the request.(4) The request may be an oral request. The FCA may require documentary evidence that the events that lead to the suspension are no
LR 5.4.4RRP
The FCA will refuse a request to restore the listing of securities if it is not satisfied of the matters set out in LR 5.4.2 R.
LR 5.4.5GRP
(1) If an issuer has requested the FCA to restore the listing of any securities, it may withdraw its request at any time while the securities are still suspended. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible.(2) Even if a request to restore has been withdrawn, the FCA may restore the listing of securities if it believes the circumstances justify it.
LR 5.4.6GRP
(1) If an underlying instrument is restored, the securitised derivative'slisting will normally be restored.(2) For a securitised derivative relating to a basket of underlying instruments that has been suspended, the securitised derivative's listing may be restored by the FCA, irrespective of whether or not the underlying instrument has been restored, if:(a) the issuer of the securitised derivative confirms to the FCA that despite the relevant underlying instrument(s) suspension
DTR 1A.2.1RRP
(1) The FCA may dispense with, or modify, the transparency rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer, or other person has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the
DTR 1A.2.2RRP
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify, a transparency rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required
DTR 1A.2.4GRP

An issuer or other person should consult with the FCA at the earliest possible stage if they:

  1. (1)

    are in doubt about how the transparency rules apply in a particular situation; or

  2. (2)

    consider that it may be necessary for the FCA to dispense with or modify a transparency rule.

DTR 1A.2.5GRP

1Where a transparency rule refers to consultation with the FCA, submissions should be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency.

Address for correspondence

Note: The FCA's address for correspondence in relation to the disclosure rules is:

Primary Market Monitoring

Markets Division

The Financial Conduct Authority

25 The North Colonnade

Canary Wharf

London E14 5HS
PERG 9.3.2GRP
Each of these aspects of the definition is considered in greater detail in PERG 9.4 (Collective investment scheme (section 235 of the Act)) to PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)). Although the definition has a number of elements, the FCA considers that it requires an overall view to be taken of the body corporate. This is of particular importance in relation to the investment condition (see PERG 9.6.3 G and PERG 9.6.4 G (The
PERG 9.3.4GRP
In the FCA's view, all of the elements of the definition are clearly objective tests. In applying the definition to any particular case, a person would need to have regard to all the circumstances. This includes any changes in the way that the body corporate operates.
PERG 9.3.5GRP
The FCA understands that the aim of the definition in section 236 of the Act is to include any body corporate which, looked at as a whole, functions as an open-ended investment vehicle. The definition operates against a background that there is a wide range of different circumstances in which any particular body corporate can be established and operated. For example, the definition applies to bodies corporate wherever they are formed. So, in the application of the definition to
PERG 9.3.6GRP
For a body corporate formed outside the United Kingdom, there is an additional issue as to how the applicable corporate law and the definition of open-ended investment company in the Act relate to one another. The FCA understands this to operate as follows. The term 'body corporate' is defined in section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation) as including 'a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom'. So, whether or not any particular
GEN 6.1.1RRP
1This chapter applies to every firm, but only with respect to business that can be regulated under sections 137A (The FCA's general rules) and 137G (The PRA's general rules)of the Act.55
GEN 6.1.4RRP
In this chapter 'financial penalty' means a financial penalty that the appropriate regulator5 has imposed, or may impose, under the Act. It does not include a financial penalty imposed by any other body.5
GEN 6.1.4ARRP
2No firm, except a sole trader, may pay a financial penalty imposed by the appropriate regulator5 on a present or former employee, director or partner of the firm or of an affiliated company.5
GEN 6.1.7GRP
GEN 6.1.4A R,2GEN 6.1.5 R and GEN 6.1.6 R do not prevent a firm or member from entering into, arranging, claiming on or making any payment under a contract of insurance which indemnifies any person against all or part of the costs of defending appropriate regulator5 enforcement action or any costs they may be ordered to pay to the appropriate regulator5.55
SUP 16.17.1GRP
1The purpose of this section is to ensure that the appropriate regulator10 receives regular and comprehensive information about remuneration in a standard format to assist it to benchmark remuneration trends and practices and to collect remuneration information on high earners. It also takes account of the Capital Requirements (Amendment) Regulations 2012 (SI 2012/917) together with the European Banking Authority's Guidelines to article 22(3) and (5) of the Banking Consolidation
SUP 16.17.2RRP
In this section "UK lead regulated group" means a UK consolidation group that is headed eitherby an EEA parent institution or by an EEA parent financial holding company.
SUP 16.17.4RRP
(1) A firm to which this rule applies must submit a High Earners Report to the appropriate regulator10 annually.10(2) The firm must submit that report to the appropriate regulator10 within four months of the end of the firm'saccounting reference date.10(3) A firm that is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated basis in respect of remuneration awarded in the last completed financial year to all high earners of the firm who mainly undertook
GEN 4.5.3RRP
A firm must not indicate or imply that it is authorised by the FCA4 in respect of business for which it is not so authorised.4
GEN 4.5.4RRP
A firm must not indicate or imply that it is regulated or otherwise supervised by the FCA4 in respect of business for which it is not regulated by the FCA4.44
GEN 4.5.6GRP
(1) Neither an incoming EEA firm nor an incoming Treaty firm is authorised by the FCA or PRA4 when acting as such.4(2) It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FCA or PRA4 to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.4(3) [deleted]44
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
GEN 2.2.13ARRP
36Unless a contrary intention appears, to the extent that a provision made by the appropriate regulator ('the referring provision') contains a cross-reference to another provision that is not made by that regulator ('the referred provision'), the referred provision is to be taken to have been made by the appropriate regulator to the extent necessary to make the referring provision function with the full effect indicated by the reference.
GEN 2.2.17RRP
A general rule (that is a rule made by the appropriate regulator under36 the general rule making powers36) is to be interpreted as:36(1) applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of all regulated activities, except to the extent that a contrary intention appears; and(2) not applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities, unless and then only to the extent that a contrary intention appears.
GEN 2.2.23RRP
(1) 36This rule applies to Handbook provisions made by both the FCA and the PRA. It may affect their application by the FCA to PRA-authorised persons and PRAapproved persons, and may affect their application by the PRA to any authorised person or approved person.(2) Where a Handbook provision (or part of one) goes beyond the FCA's or PRA's powers or regulatory responsibilities, it is to be interpreted as applied by that regulator to the extent of that regulator's powers and regulatory
GEN 2.2.24GRP
36The published Memorandum of Understanding between the FCA and the PRA describes their regulatory responsibilities.
GEN 2.2.25GRP
36Examples of rules being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23 R include the following:(1) [deleted]1212(2) SYSC 6.1.1 R requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1 R should be interpreted:(a) as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person's compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies
REC 6.2.1GRP
(1) Overseas investment exchanges which are considering whether to seek authorisation or recognition should first consider whether they will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Overseas investment exchanges which do not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom need take no action.33(2) Prospective applicants should discuss authorisation and recognition with the FCA3 before deciding whether to seek authorisation or recognition.3
REC 6.2.2GRP
A prospective applicant may wish to contact the Markets Division at the FCA3 at an early stage for advice on the preparation, scheduling and practical aspects of an application to become an overseas recognised body.3
REC 6.2.3GRP
Applicants for authorised person status should refer to the FCA3 website "How do I get authorised":http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation 31. Applications for recognition as an overseas recognised body should be addressed to:The Financial Conduct Authority3 (Markets Division)25 The North ColonnadeCanary WharfLondon E14 5HS133
REC 6.2.4GRP
There is no standard application form for application for recognition as an ROIE2. An application should be made in accordance with any direction the FCA3 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act and should include:333(1) the information, evidence and explanatory material necessary to demonstrate to the FCA3 that the recognition requirements (set out in REC 6.3) will be met;(2) the application fee (see REC 7);(3) the address of the applicant's
REC 6.2.5GRP
The FCA3 may require further information from the applicant and may need to have discussions with the appropriate authorities in the applicant's home territory. To allow sufficient time for applications to be processed and for the necessary contacts to be made with the appropriate home territory authorities, applications should be made not later than six months before the applicant wishes the recognition order to take effect. No guarantee can be given that a decision will be reached
SUP 15.2.1GRP
A firm is required to provide the appropriate regulator9 with a wide range of information to enable the appropriate regulator9 to meet its responsibilities for monitoring the firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act. Some of this information is provided through regular reports, including those set out in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements) and SUP 17 (Transaction reporting). In addition, other chapters in the Handbook set out specific notification and reporting
SUP 15.2.3GRP
Rules and guidance have also been included to set out how firms should make a notification and to determine when it may be appropriate to discuss matters with their usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator9 by telephone (SUP 15.7).
COBS 20.2.41BGRP
(1) 2The aim of the discussions in COBS 20.2.41A R is to:(a) allow the FCA to comment on the adequacy of the firm's planning; and(b) seek agreement with the firm on any other appropriate actions to ensure with-profits policyholders are treated fairly.(2) If the firm is no longer effecting a material volume of new with-profits policies (other than by reinsurance) into a with-profits fund; or if it is ceding by way of reinsurance most or all of the new with-profits policies which
COBS 20.2.42RRP
A firm that is seeking to make a reattribution of its inherited estate must:(1) first discuss with the FCA7 (as part of its determination under COBS 20.2.21 R):227(a) its projections for capital required to support existing business, which must include an assessment of:2(i) the firm's future risk appetite for the with-profits fund and other relevant business; and2(ii) how much of the margin for prudence can be identified as excessive and removed from the projected capital requirements;
COBS 20.2.43GRP
The firm should include an independent element in the policyholder advocate selection process, which may include consulting representative groups of policyholders or using the services of a recruitment consultant. When considering an application for approval of a nominee to perform the policyholder advocate role, the FCA will have regard to the extent to which the firm has involved others in the selection process.
COBS 20.2.44GRP
The precise role of the policyholder advocate in any particular case will depend on the nature of the firm and the reattribution proposed. A firm will need to discuss, with a view to agreeing,2 with the FCA the precise role of the policyholder advocate in a particular case (COBS 20.2.45 R). However, the role of the policyholder advocate should include:(1) negotiating with the firm, on behalf of the relevant with-profits policyholders, the benefits to be offered to them in exchange
COBS 20.2.45RRP
A firm must:(1) notify the FCA of the terms on which it proposes to appoint a policyholder advocate (whether or not the candidate was nominated by the FCA); and(2) ensure that the terms of appointment for the policyholder advocate:(a) include a description of the role of the policyholder advocate as agreed with the FCA under COBS 20.2.44 G;2(aA) stress the independent nature of the policyholder advocate's appointment and function, and are consistent with it;2(b) define the relationship
COBS 20.2.55GRP
2For the purposes of COBS 20.2.54R (3) the FCA will have regard to, amongst other things, the factors set out in COBS 20.2.41BG (3).
COBS 20.2.61GRP
(1) 4A mutual operating a common fund may seek to undertake an exercise to identify that part of the fund to which the mutual considers it would be fair for relevant provisions in COBS 20 not to apply. (2) To give regulatory effect to the identification exercise, the FCA expects that a mutual will need to apply to the FCA to modify the relevant provisions in COBS 20 and elsewhere which are dependent on the definition of the with-profits fund. (3) A mutual will need to demonstrate
REC 2.6.6UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7E

2The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that the [UK RIE] must not exercise its power to suspend or remove from trading on a regulated market operated by it any financial instrument which no longer complies with its rules, where such step would be likely to cause significant damage to the interests of investors or the orderly functioning of the financial markets.
REC 2.6.26GRP
2In determining whether:(1) business conducted by means of a UK RIE'sfacilities is conducted so;5(2) [deleted]55as to afford proper protection to investors, the FCA5 may, in addition to the matters dealt with in REC 2.7 to REC 2.12, have regard to all the arrangements made by the UK recognised body concerning the operation of its facilities.5
REC 2.6.27GRP
2The FCA5 may also have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's rules, procedures and the arrangements for monitoring and overseeing the use of its facilities:5(1) include appropriate measures to prevent the use of its facilities for abusive or improper purposes;(2) provide appropriate safeguards for investors against fraud or misconduct, recklessness, negligence or incompetence by users of its facilities;(3) provide appropriate information to enable users of its
REC 2.6.28GRP
2In determining whether a UK RIE is ensuring that business conducted by means of its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner (and so as to afford proper protection to investors), the FCA5 may have regard to the extent to which the UK RIE's rules and procedures:5(1) are consistent with the Code of Market Conduct (see MAR 1);(2) prohibit abusive trading practices or the deliberate reporting or publication of false information about trades; and(3) prohibit or prevent:(a) trades
REC 2.6.29GRP
2In determining whether a UK RIE is ensuring that business conducted by means of its facilities is conducted in an orderly manner (and so as to afford proper protection to investors), the FCA5 may have regard to whether the UK RIE's arrangements and practices: 5(1) enable members and clients for whom they act to obtain the best price available at the time for their size and type of trade;(2) ensure:(a) sufficient pre-trade transparency in the UK RIE's markets taking account of
COLL 4.2.3RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS21 or an ICVC16 must:16(a) provide16 a copy of the scheme's most recent prospectus drawn up and published in accordance with COLL 4.2.2 R (Publishing the prospectus) free of charge to any person on request; and16(b) file a copy of the scheme's original prospectus, together with all revisions thereto, with the FCA and, where a UCITS scheme is managed by an EEA UCITS management company, with that company's Home State regulator on request.1616(1A)
COLL 4.2.3ARRP
(1) 16The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS must:(a) where requested by an investor, provide a copy of the prospectus of its master UCITS free of charge; and(b) file a copy of the prospectus of its master UCITS and any amendments thereto with the FCA.(2) Except where an investor requests a paper copy or the use of electronic communications is not appropriate, the prospectus of the master UCITS may be provided in a durable medium other than paper
COLL 4.2.3BRRP
(1) 18The authorised fund manager of a feeder NURS must, where requested by an investor or the FCA , provide such person with a copy of the prospectus of its qualifying master scheme free of charge.(2) 18Except where an investor requests a paper copy or the use of electronic communications is not appropriate, the prospectus of the qualifying master scheme may be provided in a durable medium other than paper, or by means of a website that meets the website conditions.20
COLL 4.2.5RRP

This table belongs to COLL 4.2.2 R (Publishing the prospectus).

Document status

1

A statement that the document is the prospectus of the authorised fund valid as at a particular date (which shall be the date of the document).

Authorised fund

2

A description of the authorised fund including:

(a)

its name;

(b)

whether it is an ICVC, ACS21 or an AUT;17

3(ba)

whether it is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme;

17(bb)

a statement that unitholders in an AUT, ICVC or co-ownership scheme21 are not liable for the debts of the authorised fund;21

(bc)

a statement that the scheme property of a co-ownership scheme is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants);21

(bd)

a statement that a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;21

(be)

a statement that the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCArules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business;21

(c)

for an ICVC, the address of its head office and the address of the place in the United Kingdom for service on the ICVC of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it;

(ca)

for an ACS that is a limited partnership scheme, the address of the proposed principal place of business of the limited partnership scheme;21

(d)

the effective date of the authorisation order made by the FCA and relevant details of termination, if the duration of the authorised fund is limited;

(e)

its base currency;

(f)

for an ICVC, the maximum and minimum sizes of its capital;

18

(g)

the circumstances in which it may be wound up under the rules and a summary of the procedure for, and the rights of unitholders under, such a winding up; and1817

18(h)

if it is not an umbrella, a statement that it is a feeder UCITS, a feeder NURS, a fund of alternative investment funds or a property authorised investment fund22, where that is the case.

22

Umbrella ICVCs or co-ownership schemes21

2A

The following statements for an ICVC or a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella:21

21

(a)

for an ICVC, a statement that21its sub-funds are segregated portfolios of assets and, accordingly, the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;

21

(aa)

for a co-ownership scheme, a statement that the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund; and21

(b)

for an ICVC or a co-ownership scheme, a statement that21 while the provisions of the OEIC Regulations, and section 261P (Segregated liability in relation to umbrella co-ownership schemes) of the Act in the case of co-ownership schemes,21 provide for segregated liability between sub-funds, the concept of segregated liability is relatively new. Accordingly, where claims are brought by local creditors in foreign courts or under foreign law contracts, it is not yet known how those foreign courts will react to regulations 11A and 11B of the OEIC Regulations or, as the case may be, section 261P of the Act.2118

18Umbrella Schemes

182B

For a UCITS scheme or non-UCITS retail scheme which is an umbrella, a statement detailing whether each specific sub-fund is a feeder UCITS, a feeder NURS,22 a fund of alternative investment funds or a property authorised investment fund22, as appropriate.

22

Investment objectives and policy

3

The following particulars of the investment objectives and policy of the authorised fund:

(a)

the investment objectives, including its financial objectives;

(b)

the authorised fund's investment policy for achieving those investment objectives, including the general nature of the portfolio and, if appropriate, any intended specialisation;

(c)

an indication of any limitations on that investment policy;22

22(ca)

for an authorised fund that has indicated in its name, investment objectives or fund literature (including in any financial promotions for the fund), through use of descriptions such as 'absolute return', 'total return' or similar, an intention to deliver positive returns in all market conditions (and where there is no actual guarantee of such returns), additional statements in the authorised fund's investment objectives specifying:

(i)

that capital is in fact at risk;

(ii)

the investment period over which the authorised fund aims to achieve a positive return; and

(iii)

there is no guarantee that this will be achieved over that specific, or any, time period;

(d)

the description of assets which the capital property may consist of;

(e)

the proportion of the capital property which may consist of an asset of any description;

(f)

the description of transactions which may be effected on behalf of the authorised fund and an indication of any techniques and instruments or borrowing powers which may be used in the management of the authorised fund;

(g)

a list of the eligible markets through which the authorised fund may invest or deal in accordance with COLL 5.2.10 R (2)(b) (Eligible markets: requirements);

(h)

for an ICVC, a statement as to whether it is intended that the scheme will have an interest in any immovable property or movable property ((in accordance with COLL 5.6.4 R (2) (Investment powers: general) or COLL 5.2.8 R (2) (UCITS schemes: general)) for the direct pursuit of the ICVC's business;

(i)

where COLL 5.2.12 R (3) (Spread: government and public securities) applies, a prominent statement as to the fact that more than 35% of the scheme property is or may be invested in government and public securities and the names of the individual states, local authorities or public international bodies in whose securities the authorised fund may invest more than 35% of the scheme property;

(k)

for an authorised fund which may invest in other schemes, the extent to which the scheme property may be invested in the units of schemes which are managed by the authorised fund manager or by its associate;

14

(ka)

where a scheme is a feeder scheme (other than a feeder UCITS or a feeder NURS)18,16 which (in respect of investment in units in collective investment schemes) is dedicated to units in a single collective investment scheme, details of the master scheme and the minimum (and, if relevant, maximum) investment that the feeder scheme may make in it;

1618

(l)

where a scheme invests principally in scheme units, deposits or derivatives, or replicates an index in accordance with COLL 5.2.31 R or COLL 5.6.23 R (Schemes replicating an index), a prominent statement regarding this investment policy;

(m)

where derivatives transactions may be used in a scheme, a prominent statement as to whether these transactions are for the purposes of efficient portfolio management (including10hedging)10 or meeting the investment objectives or both and the possible outcome of the use of derivatives on the risk profile of the scheme;

(n)

information concerning the profile of the typical investor for whom the scheme is designed;

(o)

information concerning the historical performance of the scheme presented in accordance with COBS 4.6.2 R (the rules on past performance);6

6

(p)

for a non-UCITS retail scheme which invests in immovables, a statement of the countries or territories of situation of land or buildings in which the authorised fund may invest;

(q)

for a UCITS scheme which invests a substantial portion of its assets in other schemes, a statement of the maximum level of management fees that may be charged to that UCITS scheme and to the schemes in which it invests;

5(qa)

where the authorised fund is a qualifying money market fund, short-term money market fund or money market fund, 15a statement identifying it as such a fund 15and a statement that the authorised fund's investment objectives and policies will meet the conditions specified in the definition of qualifying money market fund, short-term money market fund or money market fund, as appropriate;15

15

(r)

where the net asset value of a UCITS scheme is likely to have high volatility owing to its portfolio composition or the portfolio management techniques that may be used, a prominent statement to that effect;

16

(s)

for a UCITS scheme, a statement that any unitholder may obtain on request the types of information (which must be listed) referred to in COLL 4.2.3R (3) (Availability of prospectus and long report); and16

16(t)

for a UCITS scheme that is or is intended to be a master UCITS, a statement that it is not a feeder UCITS and will not hold units of a feeder UCITS.

Reporting, distributions and accounting dates

4

Relevant details of the reporting, accounting and distribution information which includes:

(a)

the accounting and distribution dates;

(b)

procedures for:

(i)

determining and applying income (including how any distributable income is paid);

(ii)

unclaimed distributions; and

(iii)

if relevant, calculating, paying and accounting for income equalisation;

(c)

the accounting reference date and when the long report will be published in accordance with COLL 4.5.14 R (Publication and availability of annual and half-yearly long report); and

(d)

when the short report will be sent to unitholders in accordance with COLL 4.5.13 R (Provision of short report).

Characteristics of the units

5

Information as to:

(a)

where there is more than one class of unit in issue or available for issue, the name of each such class and the rights attached to each class in so far as they vary from the rights attached to other classes;

(b)

where the instrument constituting the fund23 provides for the issue of bearer certificates, that fact and what procedures will operate for them;

23

(c)

how unitholders may exercise their voting rights and what these amount to;

(d)

where a mandatory redemption, cancellation or conversion of units from one class to another may be required, in what circumstances it may be required; and

(e)

for an AUT, the fact that the nature of the right represented by units is that of a beneficial interest under a trust.

215A

ACSs: UCITS and NURS eligible investors

(a)

A statement that units may not be issued to a person other than a:

(i)

professional ACS investor; or

(ii)

large ACS investor; or

(iii)

person who already holds units in the scheme.

(b)

A statement that the authorised contractual scheme manager must redeem units as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in paragraph 5A(a).

215B

ACSs: UCITS and NURS transfer of units

(a)

A statement whether the transfer of units in the ACSscheme is either:

(i)

prohibited; or

(ii)

allowed;

by the instrument constituting the fund23 and prospectus.

23

(b)

Where transfer of units is allowed by the instrument constituting the fund23 and prospectus in accordance with (a)(ii), a statement that units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCArules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a:

23

(i)

professional ACS investor; or

(ii)

large ACS investor; or

(iii)

person who already holds units in the scheme.

(c)

For a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, a statement in accordance with (5B)(a)(i) or (ii) and, where appropriate, a statement in accordance with (5B)(b), must also be made for the sub-funds. Where individual sub-funds have differing policies in relation to transfer of units, separate statements are required.

Authorised fund manager

6

The following particulars of the authorised fund manager:

(a)

its name;

(b)

the nature of its corporate form;

(c)

the date of its incorporation;

(d)

the address of its registered office;

(e)

the address of its head office, if that is different from the address of its registered office;

(f)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom;

(g)

if the duration of its corporate status is limited, when that status will or may cease; and

(h)

the amount of its issued share capital and how much of it is paid up.

Directors of an ICVC, other than the ACD

7

Other than for the ACD:

(a)

the names and positions in the ICVC of any other directors (if any); and

(b)

the manner, amount and calculation of the remuneration of such directors.

Depositary

8

The following particulars of the depositary:

(a)

its name;

(b)

the nature of its corporate form;

(c)

the address of its registered office;

(d)

the address of its head office, if that is different from the address of its registered office;

(e)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom; and

(f)

a description of its principal business activity.

Investment adviser

9

If an investment adviser is retained in connection with the business of an authorised fund:

(a)

its name; and

(b)

where it carries on a significant activity other than providing services to the authorised fund as an investment adviser, what that significant activity is.

Auditor

10

The name of the auditor of the authorised fund.

Contracts and other relationships with parties

11

The following relevant details:

(a)

for an ICVC:

(i)

a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC and the ACD3 which may be relevant to unitholders including provisions (if any) relating to remuneration, termination, compensation on termination and indemnity;

3

(ii)

the main business activities of each of the directors (other than those connected with the business of the ICVC) where these are of significance to the ICVC's business;

(iii)

if any director is a body corporate in a group of which any other corporate director of the ICVC is a member, a statement of that fact;

3

(iv)

the main terms of each contract of service between the ICVC and a director in summary form; and3

3(v)

for an ICVC that does not hold annual general meetings, a statement that copies of contracts of service between the ICVC and its directors, including the ACD, will be provided to a unitholder on request;

(b)

the names of the directors of the authorised fund manager and the main business activities of each of the directors (other than those connected with the business of the authorised fund) where these are of significance to the authorised fund's business;

(c)

a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC or the manager of the AUT and the depositary which may be relevant to unitholders, including provisions relating to the remuneration of the depositary;

21(ca)

in the case of an ACS, a summary of the material provisions of the contracts between:

(i)

the authorised fund manager and the nominated partner (if any); and

(ii)

the authorised fund manager and depositary;

which may be relevant to unitholders, including provisions relating to the remuneration of the depositary;

(d)

if an investment adviser retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund is a body corporate in a group of which any director of the ICVC or the authorised fund manager21 of the AUTor ACS21 is a member, that fact;

21

(e)

a summary of the material provisions of any contract between the authorised fund manager or the ICVC and any investment adviser which may be relevant to unitholders;

(f)

if an investment adviser retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund has the authority of the authorised fund manager or the ICVC to make decisions on behalf of the authorised fund manager or the ICVC, that fact and a description of the matters in relation to which it has that authority;

(g)

a list of:16

16

16(i)

the functions which the authorised fund manager has delegated in accordance with FCA rules or, for an EEA UCITS management company, in accordance with applicable Home State measures implementing article 13 of the UCITS Directive; and

16(ii)

the person to whom such functions have been delegated; and

(h)

in what capacity (if any), the authorised fund manager acts in relation to any other regulated collective investment schemes2 and the name of such schemes.

2

Register of Unitholders

12

Details of:

(a)

the address in the United Kingdom where the register of unitholders, and where relevant the plan register is kept and can be inspected by unitholders; and

(b)

the registrar's name and address.

Payments out of scheme property

13

In relation to each type of payment from the scheme property, details of:

(a)

who the payment is made to;

(b)

what the payment is for;

(c)

the rate or amount where available;

(d)

how it will be calculated and accrued;

(e)

when it will be paid; and

(f)

where a performance fee is taken, examples of its operation in plain English and the maximum it can amount to.

Allocation of payments

14

If, in accordance with COLL 6.7.10 R4 (Allocation of payments to income or capital), the authorised fund manager and the depositary have agreed that all or part of any income expense payments may be treated as a capital expense:

(a)

that fact;

(b)

the policy for allocation of these payments; and

(c)

a statement that this policy may result in capital erosion or constrain capital growth.

Moveable and immovable property (ICVC only)

15

An estimate of any expenses likely to be incurred by the ICVC in respect of movable and immovable property in which the ICVC has an interest.

Valuation and pricing of scheme property

16

In relation to the valuation of scheme property and pricing of units1:

1

(a)

either:1

1

(i)

in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,1 a provision that there must be only a single price for any unit as determined from time to time by reference to a particular valuation point; or1

(ii)

1in the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the authorised fund manager's policy for determining prices for the sale and redemption of units by reference to a particular valuation point and an explanation of how those prices may differ;

(b)

details of:

(i)

how the value of the scheme property is to be determined in relation to each purpose for which the scheme property must be valued;

(ii)

how frequently and at what time or times of the day the scheme property will be regularly valued for dealing purposes and a description of any circumstance in which the scheme property may be specially valued;

(iii)

where relevant, how the price of units of each class will be determined for dealing purposes;

1

(iv)

where and at what frequency the most recent prices will be published; and

(v)

1where relevant in the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the authorised fund manager's policy in relation to large deals; and

(c)

if provisions in (a) and (b) do not take effect when the instrument constituting the fund23 or (where appropriate) supplemental trust deed takes effect, a statement of the time from which those provisions are to take effect or how it will be determined.

23

Dealing

17

The following particulars:

(a)

the procedures, the dealing periods and the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager will effect:

(i)

the sale and redemption of units and the settlement of transactions (including the minimum number or value of units which one person may hold or which may be subject to any transaction of sale or redemption) for each class of unit in the authorised fund; and

(ii)

any direct issue or cancellation of units by an ICVC or by the depositary of an AUT or ACS21 (as appropriate) through the authorised fund manager in accordance with COLL 6.2.7R (2) (Issue and cancellation of units through an authorised fund manager);

21

(b)

the circumstances in which the redemption of units may be suspended;

(c)

whether certificates will be issued in respect of registered units;

(d)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager may arrange for, and the procedure for the issue or cancellation of units in specie;

(e)

the investment exchanges (if any) on which units in the scheme are listed or dealt;

(f)

the circumstances and conditions for issuing units in an authorised fund which limit the issue of any class of units in accordance with 13COLL 6.2.18 R13 (Limited issue);

(g)

the circumstances and procedures for the limitation or deferral of redemptions in accordance with 13COLL 6.2.19 R13 (Limited redemption) or 13COLL 6.2.21 R13 (Deferred redemption);

12

(h)

in a prospectus available during the period of any initial offer:

(i)

the length of the initial offer period;

(ii)

the initial price of a unit, which must be in the base currency;

(iii)

the arrangements for issuing units during the initial offer, including the authorised fund manager's intentions on investing the subscriptions received during the initial offer;

(iv)

the circumstances when the initial offer will end;

(v)

whether units will be sold or issued in any other currency; and12

(vi)

any other relevant details of the initial offer12; and12

(i)

whether a unitholder may effect transfer of title to units on the authority of an electronic communication and if so the conditions that must be satisfied in order to effect a transfer.12

Dilution

18

In the case of a single-priced authorised fund, details1 of what is meant by dilution including:

(a)

a statement explaining:

(i)

that it is not possible to predict accurately whether dilution is likely to occur; and

(ii)

which of the policies the authorised fund manager is adopting under COLL 6.3.8 (1) (Dilution) together with an explanation of how this policy may affect the future growth of the authorised fund; and

(b)

if the authorised fund manager may require a dilution levy or make a dilution adjustment, a statement of:

(i)

the authorised fund manager's policy in deciding when to require a dilution levy, including the authorised fund manager's policy on large deals, or when to make a dilution adjustment;

(ii)

the estimated rate or amount of any dilution levy or dilution adjustment based either on historical data or future projections; and

(iii)

the likelihood that the authorised fund manager may require a dilution levy or make a dilution adjustment and the basis (historical or projected) on which the statement is made.

SDRT provision

19

An explanation of:

(a)

what is meant by stamp duty reserve tax, SDRT provision and large deals; and

(b)

the authorised fund manager's policy on imposing an SDRT provision including its policy on large deals, and the occasions, and the likely frequency of the occasions, in which an SDRT provision may be imposed and the maximum rate of it (a usual rate may also be stated).

Forward and historic pricing

20

The authorised fund manager's normal basis of pricing under COLL 6.3.9 (Forward and historic pricing).

Preliminary charge

21

Where relevant, a statement authorising the authorised fund manager to make a preliminary charge and specifying the basis for and current amount or rate of that charge.

Redemption charge

22

Where relevant, a statement authorising the authorised fund manager to deduct a redemption charge out of the proceeds of redemption; and if the authorised fund manager makes a redemption charge:

(a)

the current amount of that charge or if it is variable, the rate or method of calculating it;

(b)

if the amount, rate or method has been changed, that details of any previous amount, rate or method may be obtained from the authorised fund manager on request; and

(c)

how the order in which units acquired at different times by a unitholder is to be determined so far as necessary for the purposes of the imposition of the redemption charge.

9Property Authorised Investment Funds

922A

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

[deleted]22

22

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more than19 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

19

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.
18
18 18

General information

23

Details of:

(a)

the address at which copies of the instrument constituting the fund,23 any amending instrument and the most recent annual and half-yearly long reports may be inspected and from which copies may be obtained;

23

(b)

the manner in which any notice or document will be served on unitholders;

(c)

the extent to which and the circumstances in which:

(i)

the scheme is liable to pay or suffer tax on any appreciation in the value of the scheme property or on the income derived from the scheme property; and

(ii)

deductions by way of withholding tax may be made from distributions of income to unitholders and payments made to unitholders on the redemption of units;

3

(d)

for a UCITS scheme, any possible fees or expenses not described in paragraphs 13 to 22, distinguishing between those to be paid by a unitholder and those to be paid out of scheme property; and3

3

3(e)

for an ICVC, whether or not annual general meetings will be held.

Information on the umbrella

24

In the case of a scheme which is an umbrella with two or more sub-funds11, the following information:

(a)

that a unitholder is entitled to exchange units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund (other than a sub-fund which has limited the issue of units);

(b)

that an exchange of units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund is treated as a redemption and sale and will, for persons subject to United Kingdom taxation, be a realisation for the purposes of capital gains taxation;

(c)

that in no circumstances will a unitholder who exchanges units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund be given a right by law to withdraw from or cancel the transaction;

(d)

the policy for allocating between sub-funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the scheme property which are not attributable to any particular sub-fund;

(e)

what charges, if any, may be made on exchanging units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund; and11

(f)

for each sub-fund, the currency in which the scheme property allocated to it will be valued and the price of units calculated and payments made, if this currency is not the base currency of the scheme which is an umbrella.11

(g)

[deleted]11

11

Application of the prospectus contents to an umbrella

25

For a scheme which is an umbrella, information required must be stated:

(a)

in relation to each sub-fund where the information for any sub-fund differs from that for any other; and

(b)

for the umbrella as a whole, but only where the information is relevant to the umbrella as a whole.16

16Information on a feeder UCITS

1625A

In the case of a feeder UCITS, the following information:

(a)

a declaration that the feeder UCITS is a feeder of a particular master UCITS and as such permanently invests at least 85% in value of the scheme property in units of that master UCITS;

(b)

the investment objective and policy, including the risk profile; and whether the performance records of the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS are identical, or to what extent and for which reasons they differ, including a description of how the balance of the scheme property which is not invested in units of the master UCITS is invested in accordance with COLL 5.8.3 R (Balance of scheme property: investment restrictions on a feeder UCITS);

(c)

a brief description of the master UCITS, its organisation, its investment objective and policy, including the risk profile, and an indication of how the prospectus of the master UCITS may be obtained;

(d)

a summary of the master-feeder agreement or where applicable, the internal conduct of business rules referred to in COLL 11.3.2 R (2) (Master-feeder agreement and internal conduct of business rules);

(e)

how the unitholders may obtain further information on the master UCITS and the master-feeder agreement;

(f)

a description of all remuneration or reimbursement of costs payable by the feeder UCITS by virtue of its investment in units of the master UCITS, as well as the aggregate charges of the feeder UCITS and the master UCITS; and

(g)

a description of the tax implications of the investment into the master UCITS for the feeder UCITS.

[Note: article 63(1) of the UCITS Directive]18

18Information on a feeder NURS

1825B

In the case of a feeder NURS, the following information:

(a)

a declaration that the feeder NURS is a feeder of a particular qualifying master scheme and as such is dedicated to units in a single qualifying master scheme and the minimum (and, if relevant, maximum) investment that the feeder NURS may make in its qualifying master scheme;

(b)

the investment objective and policy of the feeder NURS, including its risk profile; and whether the performance records of the feeder NURS and the qualifying master scheme are identical, or to what extent and for which reasons they differ, including a description of how the balance of the scheme property which is not invested in units of the qualifying master scheme is invested in accordance with COLL 5.6.7 R (6A) (Spread: general);

(c)

a brief description of the qualifying master scheme, its organisation, its investment objective and policy, including the risk profile, and an indication of how the prospectus of the qualifying master scheme may be obtained;

(d)

how the unitholders may obtain further information on the qualifying master scheme;

(e)

a description of all remuneration or reimbursement of costs payable by the feeder NURS by virtue of its investment in units of the qualifying master scheme, as well as the aggregate charges of the feeder NURS and the qualifying master scheme; and

(f)

a description of the tax implications of the investment into the qualifying master scheme for the feeder NURS.

Marketing in another EEA state

26

A prospectus of a UCITS scheme which is prepared for the purpose of marketing units in a EEA State other than the United Kingdom, must give details as to:

(a)

what special arrangements have been made:

(i)

for paying in that EEA State amounts distributable to unitholders resident in that EEA State;

(ii)

for redeeming in that EEA State the units of unitholders resident in that EEA State;

(iii)

for inspecting and obtaining copies in that EEA State of the instrument constituting the fund23 and amendments to it, the prospectus and the annual and half-yearly long report; and

23

(iv)

for making public the price of units of each class; and

(b)

how the ICVC or the authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS21 will publish in that EEA State notice:

21

(i)

that the annual and half-yearly long report are available for inspection;

(ii)

that a distribution has been declared;

(iii)

of the calling of a meeting of unitholders; and

(iv)

of the termination of the authorised fund or the revocation of its authorisation.

7Investment in overseas8 property through an intermediate holding vehicle

726A

7If investment in an overseas8 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement disclosing the existence of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles and confirming that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicle is to enable the holding of overseas8 immovables by the scheme.

Additional information

27

Any other material information which is within the knowledge of the directors of an ICVC or the authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS, or which the directors or authorised fund manager21 would have obtained by making reasonable enquiries, including but not confined to, the following matters:

21

(a)

information which investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find in the prospectus, for the purpose of making an informed judgement about the merits of investing in the authorised fund and the extent and characteristics of the risks accepted by so participating;

(b)

a clear and easily understandable explanation of any risks which investment in the authorised fund may reasonably be regarded as presenting for reasonably prudent investors of moderate means;

(c)

if there is any arrangement intended to result in a particular capital or income return from a holding of units in the authorised fund or any investment objective of giving protection to the capital value of, or income return from, such a holding:

(i)

details of that arrangement or protection;

(ii)

for any related guarantee, sufficient details about the guarantor and the guarantee to enable a fair assessment of the value of the guarantee;

(iii)

a description of the risks that could affect achievement of that return or protection; and

(iv)

details of the arrangements by which the authorised fund manager will notify unitholders of any action required by the unitholders to obtain the benefit of the guarantee; and

(d)

whether any notice has been given to unitholders of the authorised fund manager intention to propose a change to the scheme and if so, its particulars.

[Note: A transitional provision applies to row 3(ca) of this table: see COLL TP 1.28.]22

COLL 4.2.6GRP
(1) In relation to COLL 4.2.5R (3)(b) the prospectus might include:(a) a description of the extent (if any) to which that policy does not envisage the authorised fund remaining fully invested at all times;(b) for a non-UCITS retail scheme which may invest in immovable property:(i) the maximum extent to which the scheme property may be invested in immovables; and(ii) a statement of the policy of the authorised fund manager in relation to insurance of3 immovables forming part of