Related provisions for SUP 7.1.1
41 - 60 of 122 items.
FIT applies to:(1) a firm;(2) an applicant for Part 4A permission;(3) and EEA firm, a Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier that wishes to establish a branch into the United Kingdom using EEA rights, Treaty rights or UCITS directive rights (see SUP 10.1.12 G9SUP 10A.1.10 G and SUP 10B.1.10 G9 and SUP 10.1.13 R9SUP 10A.1.11 R and SUP 10B.1.11 R9), or apply for a top-up permission (see SUP 10.1.14 R9SUP 10A.1.13 RSUP 10B.1.12 R9);(4) an approved person; and(5) a candidate.
This manual applies to:(1) a person who is considering carrying on activities in the United Kingdom which may fall within the scope of the Act and is seeking guidance on whether he needs to be an authorised person;(2) a person who seeks to become an authorised person under the Act and who is, or is considering, applying for Part 4A permission to carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom;(3) a person who is seeking guidance on whether any communication he may be seeking
2This
chapter applies to a firm with
a Part 4A permission to carry on:(1) insurance
business; or(2) home
financing;111(3) and which uses, or proposes
to use, the services of another person consisting of:(a) insurance mediation; or(b) insurance mediation activity; or(c) home
finance mediation activity.11
The Act prohibits any person from carrying on, or purporting to carry on, regulated activities in the United Kingdom unless that person is an authorised person or an exempt person. If an overseas investment exchange wishes to undertake regulated activities in the United Kingdom, it will need to:2(1) obtain a Part 4A permission2 from the FCA2; 22(2) (in the case of an EEA firm or a Treaty firm) qualify for authorisation under Schedule 3 (EEA Passport Rights) or Schedule 4 (Treaty
(1) If a firm is a body corporate (other than a limited liability partnership), the director function is also the function of acting in the capacity of a person:(a) who is a director, partner, officer, member (if the parent undertaking or holding company is a limited liability partnership), senior manager, or employee of a parent undertaking or holding company of the firm; and(b) whose decisions or actions are regularly taken into account by the governing body of the firm.(2)
(1) If a firm is a body corporate, the non-executive director function is also the function of acting in the capacity of a person:(a) who is a non-executive director of a parent undertaking or holding company; and(b) whose decisions or actions are regularly taken into account by the governing body of the firm.(2) However, (1) does not apply if that parent undertaking or holding company has a Part 4A permission or is regulated by an EEA regulator.
The FCA4 will consider the full circumstances of each case when determining whether or not to take action for a financial penalty or public censure. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.4(1) The nature, seriousness and impact of the suspected breach, including:(a) whether the breach was deliberate
In some cases, it may be appropriate for both the FCA4and another authority to be involved, and for both to take action in a particular case arising from the same facts. For example, a breach of RIE rules may be so serious as to justify the FCA4 varying or cancelling the firm's Part IV permission, or withdrawing approval from approved persons, as well as action taken by the RIE. In such cases, the FCA4 will work with the relevant authority to ensure that cases are dealt with efficiently
A firm also falls into one of the categories of an IFPRU investment firm listed in IFPRU 1.1.7 G (Types of IFPRU investment firm) or IFPRU 1.1.8 R (Alternative classification of IFPRU investment firms) if its Part 4A permission contains a requirement that it must comply with the rules in IFPRU applicable to that category of firm. If a firm is subject to such a requirement, and it would otherwise also fall into another category of IFPRU investment firm, it does not fall into that
For the purposes of the definitions in IFPRU and Part Three, Title I, Chapter 1, Section 2 of the EU CRR (Own funds requirements for investment firms with limited authorisation to provide investment services), a person does any of the activities referred to in IFPRU and the EU CRR if:(1) it does that activity anywhere in the world; or(2) its permission includes that activity; or(3) (for an EEA firm) it is authorised by its Home State regulator to do that activity; or(4) (if the
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives:(1) does not carry on regulated activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act or (if the appointed representative is a firm with a limited permission) in breach of section 20(1) or (1A) of the Act9; and(2) carries on the regulated activities for which the firm has accepted responsibility in a way which is, and is held out as being, clearly distinct from any of the
(1) Some of the controlled functions, as set out in SUP 10A.4.1 R22, apply to an appointed representative of a firm, other than an introducer appointed representative, just as they apply to a firm (see SUP 10A.1.15 R22). These are the governing functions and the customer function5. In the case of an appointed representative that also has a limited permission, an FCA required function may apply to it.9 As explained in SUP 10A.1.16 R22 and SUP 10A.3.2 G22 respectively:22222522522(a)
(1) Subject to FEES TP 8, if26 the firm's, designated professional body's, recognised investment exchange's, 12or regulated covered bondissuer's11periodic fee for the previous fee year26 was at least £50,000, it11 must pay the FCA:26262611(a) an amount equal to 50% of the FCA26 periodic fee payable for the previous fee year, by 30 April or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice, in the fee year26 to which the sum due under FEES 4.2.1 R relates; and 26(b) the balance
Where a firm has applied to cancel its Part 4A permission, or its authorisation or registration under the Payment Services Regulations7or the Electronic Money Regulations, 10 or the appropriate regulator has exercised its own-initiative powers to cancel a firm's7Part 4A permission or the appropriate regulator has exercised its powers under regulation 10 (Cancellation of authorisation), including as applied by regulation 14 (Supplementary provisions) of the Payment Services Regulations
(1) [deleted]1515(2) The FCA15 will also take into consideration anything that could influence a firm's continuing ability to satisfy the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act15. Examples include the firm's position within a UK or international group, information provided by overseas regulators about the firm, and the firm's plans to seek to vary its Part 4A permission15 to carry on additional regulated activities once it has been granted
A person who is(1) the lender or owner;(2) an employee or agent of the lender or owner or a person who otherwise acts on behalf of the lender or owner in relation to the credit agreement or consumer hire agreement; or(3) an associate of the lender or owner, may only make a statement of high net worth if the lender or owner is a person who has Part 4A permission to accept deposits.
Incoming EEA firms which obtain cover or 'top up' under the provisions of COMP 14 are firms whose Home State scheme provides no or limited compensation cover in the event that they are determined to be in default. Under FEES 6.6, the FSCS is required to consider whether incoming EEA firm's should receive a discount on the amount that they would otherwise pay as their share of the levy, to take account of the availability of their Home State cover. The amount of any discount is