Related provisions for SUP 18.2.50
101 - 120 of 185 items.
(1) An ICVC, or the depositary at the request of the ICVC, or the depositary of an AUT or ACS4 at the request of the authorised fund manager4, may enter into a repo contract, or a1stock lending arrangement of the kind described in section 263B of the Taxation of Chargeable Gains Act 1992 (without extension by section 263C), but only if:44(a) all the terms of the agreement under which securities are to be reacquired by the depositary for the account of the ICVC, AUT or ACS4 are
Actuaries3 act as a valuable source of information to the appropriate regulator in carrying out its functions. For example, in determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the appropriate regulator has regard to whether the firm has appointed an actuary3 with sufficient experience in the areas of business to be conducted by the firm.37
The examples in this section have so far assumed that the only EEA State involved is the United Kingdom. If a potential non-EEA sub-group that would otherwise be regulated by the appropriate regulator contains a potential non-EEA sub-group in another EEA State then the United Kingdom one is eliminated if the third country investment services undertaking4 in the UK potential non-EEA sub-group and the potential non-EEA sub-group in the other EEA State are the same. The intention
1This
manual (DEPP) is relevant to firms, approved
persons and other persons,
whether or not they are regulated by the FCA.5 It sets out:5(1) the FCA's5 decision-making procedure for giving statutory
notices. These are warning
notices, decision notices and supervisory notices (DEPP 1.2 to DEPP 5);5(1A) the FCA's decision-making
procedure in cases where the PRA is
required to seek the FCA's consent
before approving an application (a) for Part
4A permission; (b) for the variation
The appropriate regulator uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:55(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the appropriate regulator has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) elsewhere in the EEA if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c) the
The FCA1 will consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction
where it believes that such action will be a more effective and persuasive
deterrent than the imposition of a financial penalty alone. This is likely
to be the case where the FCA1 considers that direct and visible action in relation to a particular breach is necessary. Examples of circumstances
where the FCA1 may
consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction include:111(1) where the FCA1
(1) Information may be incorporated in the prospectus by reference to one or more previously or simultaneously published documents that have been approved by the competent authority of the Home State1 or filed with or notified to it in accordance with the prospectus directive1 or the TD. [Note: article 11.1 PD]2.11(2) [deleted]212
(1) References to a market maker are to a market maker which:(a) (subject to (3) below) is authorised by its Home State under MiFID;(b) does not intervene in the management of the issuer concerned; and (c) does not exert any influence on the issuer to buy such shares or back the share price.[Note: articles 9(5) and 9(6) of the TD](2) A market maker relying upon the exemption for shares held by it in that capacity must notify the competent authority of the Home Member State of
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the appropriate regulator8 within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:8(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with
(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the appropriate UK regulator5 to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the FCA and PRA authorisations teams, as and where appropriate.555(2) An applicant
A parent undertaking which wishes to make use of the exemption in relation to issuers subject to this chapter whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market must without delay, notify the following to the FCA:1(1) a list of the names of those management companies, investment firms or other entities, indicating the competent authorities that supervise them, but with no reference to the issuers concerned; and(2) a statement that, in the case of each such management company
(1) The FCA2 may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.2(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the firm in bringing (or failing
Factors that may be relevant in the assessment of a complaint under DISP 1.4.1R (2) include the following:59(1) all the evidence available and the particular circumstances of the complaint;(2) similarities with other complaints received by the respondent;(3) relevant guidance published by the
FCA
, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service or former schemes; and(4) appropriate analysis of decisions by the Financial Ombudsman Service concerning similar complaints
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that has been approved by the
FCA
to operate as a feeder UCITS, including as a feeder UCITS of a different master UCITS, must provide the following information to its unitholders at least 30 calendar days before the date when the feeder UCITS is to start to invest in units of the master UCITS or, if it has already invested in them, the date when its investment will exceed the limit applicable under COLL 5.2.11R (9) (Spread: general):(a)
SUP 2.3.12A G and SUP 2.3.12B G state that the appropriate regulator49 may pass to other regulators information which it has in its possession. Such information includes information contained in reports submitted under this chapter. The appropriate regulator's49 disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to SUP 2.2.4 G or SUP 2.2.4A G49 (Confidentiality of information).4949
A firm does not have to give notice to the appropriate regulator5 under SUP 15.9.1 R if it or another member of the consolidation group has already given notice of the relevant fact to:5(1) the appropriate regulator;5 or5(2) (if another competent authority is co-ordinator of the financial conglomerate ) that competent authority; or(3) (in the case of a financial conglomerate that does not yet have a co-ordinator ) the competent authority who would be co-ordinator under Article