Related provisions for BIPRU 1.2.19

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COLL 7.2.1RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
DISP 2.6.4RRP
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) elsewhere in the EEA if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c) the
SYSC 8.1.12GRP
As SUP 15.3.8 G explains, a firm should notify the appropriate regulator when it intends to rely on a third party for the performance of operational functions which are critical or important for the performance of relevant services and activities on a continuous and satisfactory basis.[Note: recital 20 of theMiFID implementing Directive]2
COLL 4.7.2RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager must, for each UCITS scheme which it manages, draw up a short document in English containing key investor information (a "key investor information document") for investors.(2) The words "key investor information" must be clearly stated in this document. (3) Key investor information must include appropriate information about the essential characteristics of the UCITS scheme which is to be provided to investors so that they are reasonably able to understand
RCB 2.3.2GRP
(1) The FCA's application form covers both issuer registration and covered bond registration as the FCA will not normally consider applications for issuer registration in isolation from the application for registration of the covered bond.(2) An issuer which has been admitted to the register of issuers should use the same form to apply for registration of subsequent covered bonds or programmes.(3) The issuer does not need to apply for registration of individual issuances from
PR 2.4.1RRP
(1) Information may be incorporated in the prospectus by reference to one or more previously or simultaneously published documents that have been approved by the competent authority of the Home State1 or filed with or notified to it in accordance with the prospectus directive1 or the TD. [Note: article 11.1 PD]2.11(2) [deleted]212
BIPRU 8.4.18RRP
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is a firm or an EEA firm has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group;(2) notify the FCA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, as soon as
SUP 13A.5.4GRP
(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of
COLL 12.1.3GRP
Where an authorised fund manager wishes to market the units of a UCITS scheme it operates in a Host State, without establishing a branch or pursuing any other activities in that State, a management company passport is not required for those marketing activities. A UCITS marketing notification should be made for the relevant UCITS scheme (see COLL 12.4 (UCITS product passport) in order to access the market of the Host State. The marketing must be carried on in conformity with the
INSPRU 8.4.7GRP
The Society should consult members and underwriting agents before it finalises material changes in the byelaws referred to in INSPRU 8.4.3 R, and should have timely and effective arrangements for notifying them of changes in these byelaws.
LR 3.3.4RRP
If written confirmation of the number of shares 4to be allotted pursuant to a board resolution1 cannot be submitted to the FCA by the deadline set out in LR 3.3.2 R or the number of shares4to be admitted is lower than the number notified under LR 3.3.2 R,1 written confirmation of the number of shares4to be allotted or admitted must be provided to the FCA by 1the applicant or its sponsor at least one hour before the admission to listing is to become effective.14144141
SUP 16.14.3RRP
(1) Subject to (3), a4firm must submit a completed CMAR to the FCA10 within 15 business days of the end of each month.410(2) In this rule month means a calendar month and SUP 16.3.13 R (4) does not apply.(3) 4A firm which changes its 'CASS firm type' and notifies the FCA10 that it is a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R is not required to submit a CMAR in respect of the month in which the change to its 'CASS firm type' takes effect in accordance
SUP 13.1.3AGRP
9Other than the notification requirements in SUP 13.5.1AA R and SUP 13.5.2-A R and the related guidance in SUP 13.5.1B G, SUP 13.5.2A G and SUP 13.5.7 G, this chapter does not apply to a UK firm in relation to its exercise of an EEA right under the auction regulation to provide services or establish a branch in another EEA state. This is because a UK firm is not subject to the requirements in Schedule 3 to the Act in respect of its exercise of that EEA right.
DISP 1.1.12RRP
(1) A firm, payment service provider8 or electronic money issuer1340 falling within the Compulsory Jurisdiction which does not conduct business with eligible complainants and has no reasonable likelihood of doing so, can, by written notification to the FCA , claim exemption from the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service, and from the remainder of this chapter.1340(2) Notwithstanding (1):11(a) the complaints handling rules and complaints record rule
SUP 14.6.3ARRP
4An EEA firm that has exercised an EEA right under the auction regulation to establish a branch in the United Kingdom must notify the FCA7 by email to 7emissionstrading@fca.org.uk7 when it ceases to carry on regulated activities through a branch passport in the United Kingdom or whenever possible thereafter.
FEES 3.1.5AGRP
17The fees for collective investment schemes reflect the estimated costs to the FCA of assessing applications and notifications. The level of fees payable in respect of an application or a notification will vary depending upon the provision of the Act under which it is made. This fee is adjusted when the scheme concerned is an umbrella.
COLL 8.1.5GRP
Details of the application procedures in respect of qualified investor schemes are contained in COLL 2.1 (Authorised fund applications). COLLG provides details on how notifications may be made to the FCA.
REC 3.18.1GRP
(1) The purpose of REC 3.18 is to enable the FCA4 to monitor changes in the types of member admitted by UK recognised bodies and to ensure that the FCA4has notice of foreign jurisdictions in which the members of UK recognised bodies are based. UK recognised bodies may admit persons who are not authorised persons or persons who are not located in the United Kingdom, provided that the recognition requirements2or (for RAPs) RAP recognition requirements continue to be met.44(2) REC
BIPRU 9.3.8RRP
1An originator must notify the appropriate regulator that it is relying on the deemed transfer of significant credit risk under BIPRU 9.3.7R within a reasonable period before or after a relevant transfer, not being later than one month after the date of the transfer. The notification must include the following information: (1) the risk weighted exposure amount of the securitised exposures and retained securitisation positions; (2) the exposure value of the securitised exposures