Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4

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GEN 4.3.2AGRP
15For a UK domestic firm that is not a PRA-authorised person, the required disclosure in GEN 4 Annex 1 R is "Authorised and regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority".
GEN 4.3.2BGRP
15For a UK domestic firm that is a PRA-authorised person, the required disclosure in GEN 4 Annex 1AR is "Authorised by the Prudential Regulation Authority and regulated by the Financial Conduct Authority and Prudential Regulation Authority".
SUP 16.17.2RRP
In this section "UK lead regulated group" means a UK consolidation group that is headed eitherby an EEA parent institution or by an EEA parent financial holding company.
SUP 16.17.4RRP
(1) A firm to which this rule applies must submit a High Earners Report to the appropriate regulator10 annually.10(2) The firm must submit that report to the appropriate regulator10 within four months of the end of the firm'saccounting reference date.10(3) A firm that is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated basis in respect of remuneration awarded in the last completed financial year to all high earners of the firm who mainly undertook
FEES 4.3.1RRP
The periodic fee payable by a firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier) is:(1) each periodic fee applicable to it calculated in accordance with FEES 4.3.3 R, using information obtained in accordance with FEES 4.4; plus77(1A) any periodic fee applicable to it calculated in accordance with FEES 4.3.3A R using information relating to its UK business obtained in accordance with FEES 4.4 (or by other means in the case of the Bank of England); less7(2) any deductions from the periodic
FEES 4.3.11GRP
The appropriate regulator recognises that its responsibilities in respect of an incoming EEA firm,7 an incoming Treaty firm, an EEA authorised payment institution7 or an EEA authorised electronic money institution10 are reduced compared with a firm which is incorporated in the United Kingdom. Accordingly the periodic fees which would otherwise be applicable to incoming EEA firms,7incoming Treaty firms,10EEA authorised payment institutions7 and EEA authorised electronic money institutions10
FEES 4.3.12RRP
For an incoming EEA firm, (excluding MTF operators), 5 or an incoming Treaty firm, the calculation required by FEES 4.3.3 R is modified as follows:(1) the tariffs set out in 27 Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2AR and, if applicable, Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2BR27 are applied only to the regulated activities of the firm which are carried on in the United Kingdom; and(2) those tariffs are modified in accordance with Part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 2AR and, if applicable, Part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 2B
FEES 4.3.12ARRP
10For:10(-1) (a) a full credit institution which is a fee-paying payment service provider and an EEA firm; or(b) a full credit institution which is a fee-paying electronic money issuer and an EEA firm; or(c) an EEA authorised payment institution; or(d) an EEA authorised electronic money institution;the calculation required by FEES 4.3.3A R is modified as follows:(1) the tariffs set out in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 11 are only applied to the payment services or electronic money issuance10of
FIT 2.1.1GRP
In determining a person's honesty, integrity and reputation, the appropriate regulator will have regard to all relevant 3matters including, but not limited to, those set out in FIT 2.1.3 G which may have arisen either in the United Kingdom or elsewhere. The appropriate regulator should be informed of these matters (see SUP 10A.14.17 R and SUP 10B.12.188), but will consider the circumstances only where relevant to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. For
FIT 2.1.3GRP
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the appropriate regulator will have regard include, include, but are not limited to:(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Rehabilitation Exceptions Orders4to2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974 or the Rehabilitation of Offenders (Northern Ireland) Order 1978 (as applicable)4, any spent convictions2; particular consideration will be given to offences
LR 14.3.11GRP
A company2 whose shares4are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom, should consider its obligations under the disclosure rules and transparency rules.244
LR 14.3.15RRP
1(1) This rule applies to an overseas company for whom the United Kingdom is a host Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive.11(2) An overseas company must appoint a registrar in the United Kingdom if:11(a) there are 200 or more holders resident in the United Kingdom; or1(b) 10% of more of the shares4 are held by persons resident in the United Kingdom.14
LR 14.3.15AGRP
1An overseas company for whom the United Kingdom is the home Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive should see LR 14.3.22 G and LR 14.3.23 R.
DTR 5.1.1RRP
1In this chapter:(1) references to an2 "issuer", in relation to shares admitted to trading on a regulated market, are to an issuer whose Home State is the United Kingdom;2(2) references to a "non-UKissuer" are to an issuer whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market and whose Home State is the United Kingdom other than:(a) a public company within the meaning of section 4(2)7of the Companies Act 200674; and434433477(b) a company which is otherwise incorporated in,
DTR 5.1.3RRP
Voting rights attaching to the following shares are to be disregarded for the purposes of determining whether a person has a notification obligation in accordance with the thresholds in DTR 5.1.2 R:(1) shares acquired for the sole purpose of clearing and settlement within a settlement cycle not exceeding the period beginning with the transaction and ending at the close of the third trading day following the day of the execution of the transaction (irrespective of whether the transaction
DTR 5.1.5RRP
(1) The following are to be disregarded for the purposes of determining whether a person has a notification obligation in accordance with the thresholds in DTR 5.1.2 R except at the thresholds of 5% and 10% and above:(a) voting rights attaching to shares forming part of property belonging to another which that person lawfully manages under an agreement in, or evidenced in, writing;(b) voting rights attaching to shares which may be exercisable by a person in his capacity as the
SUP 10A.9.4GRP
The scale, nature and complexity of the firm's business may be such that a firm apportions, under SUP 10A.9.1R (1), a significant responsibility to an individual who is not approved to perform the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions or, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions. If so, the firm should consider whether the functions of that individual fall within the significant management function. For the purposes
SUP 10A.9.7GRP
Generally, in relation to a branch of a firm, or a firm which is part of an overseas group, where an overseas manager is responsible for strategy, he will not need to be approved for the significant management function. However, where he is responsible for implementing that strategy in the United Kingdom, and has not delegated that responsibility to a senior manager in the United Kingdom, he is likely to be performing that FCA controlled function.
COLL 6.3.1RRP
8(1) 8This section applies to an authorised fund manager, a depositary, an ICVC and any other director of an ICVC.(2) COLL 6.3.3A R to COLL 6.3.3D R (Accounting procedures):(a) apply to:(i) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services; and(ii) an EEA UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for a
COLL 6.3.3ARRP
(1) 8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure the employment of the accounting policies and procedures referred to in SYSC 4.1.9 R (Accounting policies), so as to ensure the protection of unitholders.(2) Accounting for the scheme shall be carried out in such a way that all assets and liabilities of the scheme can be directly identified at all times.(3) If the scheme is an umbrella, separate accounts must be
COLL 6.3.3BRRP
8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must have accounting policies and procedures established, implemented and maintained, in accordance with the accounting rules of the UCITS Home State, so as to ensure that the calculation of the net asset value of each scheme it manages is accurately effected, on the basis of the accounting, and that subscription and redemption orders can be properly executed at that net asset
COLL 6.3.3DRRP
8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must establish appropriate procedures to ensure the proper and accurate valuation of the assets and liabilities of each scheme it manages.[Note: article 8(3) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees payable to the FCA76

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

76

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE76 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7676

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the appropriate regulator76 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the appropriate regulator76 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the appropriate regulator765for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the appropriate regulator's76 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the appropriate regulator76 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1125765765767676

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555765765

Where the firm has made an application directly to the appropriate regulator76, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the appropriate regulator76 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.2

2767676

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A or Part 1 of 76 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,76 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

17676111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1377 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713777227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,250 to the PRA and 9,250 to the FCA75 ; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. to the PRA and 5,000 is payable to the FCA.75

75The amount payable to the PRA above is collected by the FCA as agent of the PRA.

7575

On or before any application is made to the PRA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FCA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FCA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FCA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSAFCA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSAFCA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]76

76
76 91676

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

76(zp) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

76(zq) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

SUP 18.2.25GRP
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the appropriate regulator8 has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the appropriate regulator8 to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency
SUP 18.2.28GRP
If the transferor is a UK insurer (other than a pure reinsurer)8 and the business to be transferred includes business carried on from a branch in another EEA State, then the appropriate regulator8 has to consult the Host State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. The appropriate regulator8 will need to be given the information that the Host State regulator requires from it. This information should identify the parties to the transfer and include the transfer agreement or draft
SUP 18.2.29GRP
If the transferor is a8UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a long-term insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the commitment is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom, then the appropriate regulator8 has to consult the Host State regulator. If the transferor is a8UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a general insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the risk is an EEA state other than
SUP 18.2.30GRP
Where the transferor is a8UK-deposit insurer and, following the transfer, it will no longer be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom, the appropriate regulator8 will need to collaborate with regulatory bodies in the other EEA States in which it is carrying on business to ensure that effective supervision of the business carried on in the EEA continues. The transferor should cooperate with the appropriate regulator8 and the other regulatory bodies in this process
PERG 2.6.9GRP
Shares are defined in the Regulated Activities Order as shares or stock in a wide range of entities; that is, any body corporate wherever incorporated and unincorporated bodies formed under the law of a country other than the United Kingdom. They include deferred shares issued by building societies as well as transferable shares in industrial and provident societies, credit unions and equivalent EEA bodies. These shares are transferable and negotiable in a way similar to other
PERG 2.6.27AGRP
3In accordance with article 63B(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order, a home reversion plan is an arrangement under which, at the time it is entered into:(1) a person (the "reversion purchaser") buys all or part of a qualifying interest in land (other than timeshare accommodation) in the United Kingdom from an individual or trustees (the "reversion occupier");(2) the reversion occupier (or, where trustees are concerned, an individual who is a beneficiary of the trust), or a
PERG 2.6.27BGRP
3In accordance with article 63F(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order, a home purchase plan is an arrangement under which, at the time it is entered into:(1) a person (the "home purchase provider") buys a qualifying interest in land or an undivided share of a qualifying interest in land (other than timeshare accommodation) in the United Kingdom;(2) where an undivided share of a qualifying interest is bought, the interest is held on trust for the home purchase provider and the
PERG 2.6.27CGRP
5In accordance with Article 63J(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order, a regulated sale and rent back agreement is an arrangement under which, at the time it is entered into:(1) a person (the SRB agreement provider) buys all or part of the qualifying interest in land (other than timeshare accommodation) in the United Kingdom from an individual or trustees (the agreement seller); and(2) the agreement seller (if he is an individual) or an individual who is the beneficiary of the
SYSC 6.3.5GRP
The FCA, when considering whether a breach of its rules on systems and controls against money laundering has occurred, will have regard to whether a firm has followed relevant provisions in the guidance for the United Kingdom financial sector issued by the Joint Money Laundering Steering Group.1
SYSC 6.3.10GRP
The job of the MLRO within a firm is to act as the focal point for all activity within the firm relating to anti-money laundering. The FCA expects that a firm'sMLRO will be based in the United Kingdom.
SUP 11.2.1GRP
Part XII of the Act (Control Over Authorised Persons6) places an obligation on the controllers and proposed controllers of those UK domestic firms not listed in SUP 11.1.1 R (1) to SUP 11.1.1 R (6) to notify the appropriate regulator6 of changes in control, including acquiring, increasing or reducing control or ceasing to have control over a firm.3 Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the appropriate regulator's approval6 before becoming a controller or increasing
SUP 11.2.3GRP
As the approval of the appropriate regulator6 is not required under the Act for a new controller of an overseas firm, the notification rules on such firms are less prescriptive than they are for UK domestic firms. Nevertheless, the appropriate regulator6 still needs to monitor such an overseas firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, which normally includes consideration of a firm's connection with any person, including its controllers and parent undertakings
MCOB 2.7A.1RRP
1This section applies to a firm carrying on an electronic commerce activity from an establishment in the United Kingdom, with or for a person in the United Kingdom or another EEA state, in relation to a home finance transaction.
MCOB 2.7A.5RRP
An unsolicited commercial communication sent by e-mail by a firm established in the United Kingdom must be identifiable clearly and unambiguously as an unsolicited commercial communication as soon as it is received by the recipient.[Note: article 7(1) of the E-Commerce Directive]
SUP 15.3.1RRP
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future:35(1) the firm failing to satisfy one or more of the threshold conditions; or(2) any matter which could have a significant adverse impact on the firm's reputation; or(3) any matter which could affect the firm's ability to continue to provide adequate services to
SUP 15.3.8GRP
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the appropriate regulator35 notice of:35(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory;
SUP 15.3.11AGRP
6SUP 15.3.11 R (1)(e) relates to the standard requirement in the permission of those firms which fall outside MiFID because of the Treasury's implementation of Article 3 of MiFID. Guidance on how the Treasury has exercised the Article 3 exemption for the United Kingdom is given in Q48 and the following questions and answers in PERG 13.5 (Exemptions from MiFID).
SYSC 3.2.6EGRP
5The FCA, when considering whether a breach of its rules on systems and controls against money laundering has occurred, will have regard to whether a firm has followed relevant provisions in the guidance for the UK financial sector issued by the Joint Money Laundering Steering Group.
SYSC 3.2.6JGRP
5The job of the MLRO within a firm is to act as the focal point for all activity within the firm relating to anti-money laundering. The FCA expects that a firm'sMLRO will be based in the United Kingdom.
SYSC 3.2.11AGRP
(1) 24A firm's arrangements should be such as to furnish its governing body with the information it needs to play its part in identifying, measuring, managing and controlling risks of regulatory concern. Three factors will be the relevance, reliability and timeliness of that information.(2) Risks of regulatory concern are those risks which relate to the fair treatment of the firm'scustomers, to the protection of consumers, to effective competition and to the integrity of the UK
COBS 11.1.4RRP
The section on personal account dealing applies to the designated investment business of a firm in relation to activities carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom.
COBS 11.1.5GRP
The EEA territorial scope rule modifies the default territorial scope of the section on personal account dealing (see COBS 11.7) to the extent necessary to be compatible with European law (see paragraph 1.1G5 of Part 3 of COBS 1 Annex 1). This means that the section on personal account dealing also applies to passported activities carried on by a UK MiFID investment firm or a UK UCITS management company5 from a branch in another EEA state, but does not apply to the UKbranch of
REC 2.17.2UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Part II

2Paragraph 10 (Default rules in respect of market contracts)

(1)

The [UK RIE] must havedefault ruleswhich, in the event of amemberof the [UK RIE] being or appearing to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or moremarket contracts, enable action to be taken in respect of unsettledmarket contractsto which he is party.

(2)

The [default rules] may authorise the taking of the same or similar action in relation to amemberwho appears to be likely to become unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or moremarket contracts.

(3)

The [default rules] must enable action to be taken in respect of all unsettledmarket contracts, other than those entered into for the purposes of or in connection with the provision of clearing services for the [UK RIE].

3(4)

Sub-paragraph (5) applies where the exchange has arrangements for transacting business with, or in relation to common members of, a [recognised clearing house] or another [recognised investment exchange].

3(5)

A [UK RIE] must have [default rules] which in the event of the clearing house or the investment exchange being or appearing to be unable to meet its obligations in respect of one or more [market contracts], enable action to be taken in respect of unsettled [market contracts] to which that person is a party.

Paragraph 11 (Content of rules)

(1)

This paragraph applies as regards contracts falling within section 155(2)(a) of the Companies Act [1989].

(2)

The [default rules] must provide -

(a)

for all rights and liabilities between those party as principal to unsettledmarket contractsto which the defaulter is party as principal to be discharged and for there to be paid by one party to the other such sum of money (if any) as may be determined in accordance with the [default rules];

(b)

for the sums so payable in respect of different contracts between the same parties to be aggregated or set off so as to produce a net sum; and

(c)

for the certification by or on behalf of the [UK RIE] of the net sum payable or, as the case may be, of the fact that no sum is payable.

(3)

The reference in sub-paragraph (2) to rights and liabilities between those party as principal to unsettledmarket contractsdoes not include rights and liabilities -

(a)

in respect of margin; or

(b)

arising out of a failure to perform amarket contract.

(4)

The [default rules] may make the same or similar provision, in relation to [designated non-members] designated in accordance with the procedures mentioned in sub-paragraph (5), as in relation tomembersof the [UK RIE].

(5)

If such provision is made as is mentioned in sub-paragraph (4), the [UK RIE] must have adequate procedures -

(a)

for designating thepersons, or descriptions of person, in respect of whom action may be taken;

(b)

for keeping under review the question whichpersonsor descriptions of person should be or remain so designated; and

(c)

for withdrawing such designation.

(6)

The procedures must be designed to secure that -

(a)

apersonis not, or does not remain, designated if failure by him to meet his obligations in respect of one or moremarket contractswould be unlikely adversely to affect the operation of the market; and

(b)

a description of persons is not, or does not remain, designated if failure by apersonof that description to meet his obligations in respect of one or moremarket contractswould be unlikely adversely to affect the operation of the market.

(7)

The [UK RIE] must have adequate arrangements -

(a)

for bringing a designation or withdrawal of designation to the attention of thepersonor description of persons concerned; and

(b)

where a description ofpersonsis designated, or the designation of a description of persons is withdrawn, for ascertaining whichpersonsfall within that description.

Paragraph 12 (Content of rules)

(1)

This paragraph applies as regards contracts falling within section 155(2)(b) or (c) of the Companies Act [1989].3

(2)

The [default rules] must provide -

(a)

for all rights and liabilities of the defaulter under or in respect of unsettledmarket contractsto be discharged and for there to be paid by or to the defaulter such sum of money (if any) as may be determined in accordance with the [default rules];

(b)

for the sums so payable by or to the defaulter in respect of different contracts entered into by the defaulter in one capacity for the purposes of section 187 of the Companies Act [1989] to be aggregated or set off so as to produce a net sum;3

3(bb)

if relevant, for that sum to be aggregated with, or set off against, any sum owed by or to the investment exchange by or to AP under an indemnity given or reimbursement or similar obligation in respect of a margin set off agreement in which the defaulter chose to participate so as to produce a net sum;

(c)

for the net sum referred to in [(2)](b) or, if relevant, the net sum referred to in [(2)](bb) -3

3

(i)

if payable by the defaulter to the exchange, to be set off against -3

3

(aa) any property provided by or on behalf of the defaulter as cover for margin (or the proceeds of realisation of such property);3

(bb) to the extent (if any) that any sum remains after set off under (aa), any default fund contribution provided by the defaulter remaining after any application of such contribution;3

(ii)

to the extent (if any) that any sum remains after set off under (i), to be paid from such other funds, including the default fund, or resources as the exchange may apply under its default rules;3

3

(iii)

if payable by the exchange to the defaulter, to be aggregated with -3

(aa) any property provided by or on behalf of the defaulter as cover for margin (or the proceeds of realisation of such property);3

(bb) any default fund contribution provided by the defaulter remaining after any application of such contribution; and3

(d)

for the certification by or on behalf of the [UK RIE] of the sum finally payable or, as the case may be, of the fact that no sum is payable.

3(2A)

In sub-paragraph (2), "margin set off agreement" means an agreement between the exchange and AP permitting any eligible position to which the Participant Member is party with the exchange and any eligible position to which the Participant Member is party with AP to be taken into account in calculating a net sum owed by or to the Participant Member to either the exchange or AP and/or margin to be provided to, either or both, the exchange and AP.

3(2B)

In sub-paragraph (2) -

"AP" means a [recognised clearing house] or another [recognised investment exchange] of whom a Participant Member is a member;

"eligible position" means any position which may be included in the set off calculation;

"Participant Member" means a person who

(a) is a member of the exchange;

(b) is a member or participant of AP; and

(c) chooses to participate, in accordance with the rules of the exchange, in such agreement.

3(2C)

The property, contribution, funds or resources referred to in (2)(c), against which the net sum is to be set off (or with which it is to be aggregated) are subject to any unsatisfied claims arising out of the default of a defaulter before the default in relation to which the calculation is being made.

(3)

The reference in sub-paragraph (2) to the rights and liabilities of a defaulter under or in respect of an unsettledmarket contractincludes (without prejudice to the generality of that provision) rights and liabilities arising in consequence of action taken under provisions of the [default rules] authorising -

(a)

the effecting by the [UK RIE] of corresponding contracts in relation to unsettledmarket contractsto which the defaulter is party;

(b)

the transfer of the defaulter's position under an unsettledmarket contractto anothermemberof the [UK RIE];

(c)

the exercise by theUK RIEof anyoptiongranted by an unsettledmarket contract.

(4)

A "corresponding contract" means a contract on the same terms (except as to price or premium) as themarket contractbut under which thepersonwho is the buyer under themarket contractagrees to sell and thepersonwho is the seller under themarket contractagrees to buy.

(5)

Sub-paragraph (4) applies with any necessary modifications in relation to amarket contractwhich is not an agreement to sell.

(6)

The reference in sub-paragraph (2) to the rights and liabilities of a defaulter under or in respect of an unsettledmarket contractdoes not include, where he acts as agent, rights or liabilities of his arising out of the relationship of principal and agent.

3Paragraph 12A (Content of rules)

3The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that, in the event of a default, any default fund contribution provided by the defaulter shall only be used in accordance with paragraph 12(2)(c)(i) or (ii).

Paragraph 13 (Notification to other parties affected)

The [UK RIE] must have adequate arrangements for ensuring that -

(a)

in the case of unsettledmarket contractswith a defaulter acting as principal, parties to the contract are notified as soon as reasonably practicable of the default and of any decision taken under the [default rules] in relation to contracts to which they are a party; and

(b)

in the case of unsettledmarket contractswith a defaulter acting as agent, parties to the contract and the defaulter's principals are notified as soon as reasonably practicable of the default and of the identity of the other parties to the contract.

Paragraph 14 (Cooperation with other authorities)

The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate, by the sharing of information and otherwise, with the Secretary of State, anyrelevant office-holderand any other authority or body having responsibility for any matter arising out of, or connected with, the default of amemberof the [UK RIE] or any [designated non-member] or the default of a [recognised clearing house] or another [recognised investment exchange].34

REC 2.17.6GRP
The Companies Act 1989 contains provisions which protect action taken by a UK recognised body under its default rules from the normal operation of insolvency law which might otherwise leave this action open to challenge by a relevant office-holder.
SUP 13.12.1GRP
(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the appropriate UK regulator5 to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the FCA and PRA authorisations teams, as and where appropriate.555(2) An applicant
SUP 13.12.2GRP
To contact the FCA and/or PRA authorisations teams, please see the details provided on that regulator's website.5534
SUP 17.1.2GRP
1Article 32(7) of MiFID requires the FCA to apply the transaction reporting requirements in Article 25 to the UKbranches of EEA investment firms and branches of credit institutions in respect of reportable transactions arising in the course of services provided in the UK.
SUP 17.1.3GRP
1Article 32(7) of MiFID provides that the branch of a UK firm operating from an establishment in another EEA state must satisfy the transaction reporting requirements of the competent authority in that other Member State in respect of reportable transactions arising in the course of services provided in that other Member State.