Related provisions for LR 14.3.3

121 - 140 of 157 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

SUP 4.4.5GRP
If it appears to the FSA that an appropriate actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see EG 153 (Disqualification of auditors and actuaries)2. A list of actuaries who have been disqualified by the FSA may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).3
MCOB 2.6A.13ERP
(1) A valuer may be considered competent if he is a suitably qualified member of a professional body.(2) A valuer may be considered independent if:(a) the customer can choose the valuer subject to the firm objecting on reasonable grounds and to the valuer being competent;(b) he owes a duty of care to the customer in valuing the property; and(c) the customer has an appropriate remedy against him under a complaints procedure which allows the complaint to be referred to an independent
FEES 6.5.14RRP
If the information in FEES 6.5.13 R has been provided to the FSA under other rule obligations, a participant firm will be deemed to have complied with FEES 6.5.13 R.
CASS 6.1.8GRP
Firms are reminded of the client's best interests rule, which requires them to act honestly, fairly and professionally in accordance with the best interests of their clients when structuring their business particularly in respect of the effect of that structure on firms' obligations under this chapter.
SYSC 3.2.6DGRP
5A firm may also have separate obligations to comply with relevant legal requirements, including the Terrorism Act 2000, the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 and the Money Laundering Regulations. SYSC 3.2.6 R to SYSC 3.2.6J G are not relevant for the purposes of regulation 42(3) or 45(2)12of the Money Laundering Regulations, section 330(8) of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 or section 21A(6) of the Terrorism Act 2000.12
BIPRU 8.2.1RRP
A firm that is a member of a UK consolidation group must comply, to the extent and in the manner prescribed in BIPRU 8.5, with the obligations laid down in GENPRU 1.2 (Adequacy of financial resources), the main BIPRU firm Pillar 1 rules (but not the base capital resources requirement) and BIPRU 10 (Large exposures2 requirements) on the basis of the consolidated financial position of:2(1) where either Test 1A or Test 1B in BIPRU 8 Annex 1 (Decision tree identifying a UK consolidation
REC 4.2C.9GRP
The offences for which a person who fails to comply with the obligations set out in Chapter 1A of Part XVIII of the Act is liable are set out in section 301L 3of the Act. 3
RCB 1.1.9GRP
(1) Issuers which are subject to an obligation to publish a prospectus under the Prospectus Directive are required by Article 3 of the PD Regulation to disclose risk factors. These requirements are set out in PR 2.3.1 EU and PR App 3.1.1 EU.(2) In complying with these obligations, issuers should consider disclosing the risk that actions by a regulatory authority in relation to the issuer may adversely affect the ability of the issuer to meet its obligations to investors or the
DEPP 6.5A.2GRP
(1) The FSA will determine a figure that reflects the seriousness of the breach. In many cases, the amount of revenue generated by a firm from a particular product line or business area is indicative of the harm or potential harm that its breach may cause, and in such cases the FSA will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of the firm’s revenue from the relevant products or business areas. The FSA also believes that the amount of revenue generated by a firm from
REC 6.7.6GRP
Guidance on the period covered by an overseas recognised body's report submitted in compliance with section 295(1) of the Act is given in REC 6.6.3.
PERG 9.1.3GRP
This guidance is issued under section 157of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
CASS 3.1.5GRP
The purpose of this chapter1 is to ensure that an appropriate level of protection is provided for those assets over which a client gives a firm certain rights. The arrangements covered by this chapter1 are those under which the firm is given a right to use the asset, and the firm treats the asset as if legal title and associated rights to that asset had been transferred to the firm subject only to an obligation to return equivalent assets to the client upon satisfaction of the
DEPP 6.6.1GRP
(1) The FSA attaches considerable importance to the timely submission by firms of reports. This is because the information that they contain is essential to the FSA's assessment of whether a firm is complying with the requirements and standards of the regulatory system and to the FSA's understanding of that firm's business.(2) DEPP 6.6.1 G to DEPP 6.6.5 G set out the FSA's policy in relation to financial penalties for late submission of reports and is in addition to the FSA's
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.3

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for an RAP) auction platform,3 settlement arrangements, clearing services and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products4 which it operates or plans to operate.3

4

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks, including details of margining systems, guarantee funds and insurance arrangements.

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FSA.

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules)and arrangements for margin against any of its members based outside the United Kingdom, and the results and conclusions reached.

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for an RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status.3

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE, or to be cleared by an RCH and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FSA and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.

COLL 6.7.7RRP
(1) No person other than the authorised fund manager may impose charges on unitholders or potential unitholders when they buy or sell units.(2) An authorised fund manager must not make any charge or levy in connection with:(a) the issue or sale of units except where a preliminary charge is made in accordance with the prospectus of the scheme which must be either a fixed amount or calculated as a percentage of the price of a unit; or(b) the redemption or cancellation of units,
LR 17.3.9RRP
An issuer that is not already required to comply with DTR 2 must comply with DTR 2 as if it were an issuer for the purposes of the disclosure rules and transparency rules.1
SUP 11.4.9GRP
The obligations 4in SUP 11.4.2 R andSUP 11.4.2A R apply 4 whether or not the controller himself has given or intends to give a notification, in accordance with his obligations under the Act.144
COLL 11.4.1RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS is responsible for communicating to the depositary of the scheme any information about the master UCITS which is required for the completion of the depositary's regulatory obligations.(2) Where a master UCITS and its feeder UCITS have different depositaries, the depositaries must enter into an information-sharing agreement in order to ensure fulfilment of their respective duties.[Note: article 61(1) first and fourth paragraphs of