Related provisions for LR 14.3.3
101 - 120 of 154 items.
3Where the authorised fund manager of either a feeder UCITS or a feeder NURS4 is notified of any change in respect of its master UCITS or qualifying master scheme4which has the effect of a change to the feeder UCITS or feeder NURS4, the authorised fund manager must:4(1) classify it as a fundamental change, significant change or a notifiable change to the feeder UCITS or feeder NURS4 in accordance with the rules in this section; and(2) (a) for a fundamental change, obtain approval
(1) This chapter contains requirements to report to the FSA on a regular basis. These requirements include reports relating to a firm's financial condition, and to its compliance with other rules and requirements which apply to the firm. Where the relevant requirements are set out in another section of the Handbook, this chapter contains cross references. An example of this is financial reporting for insurers and friendly societies.(2) Where such requirements already apply to
(1) The permanent risk management function must:(a) implement the risk management policy and procedures;(b) ensure compliance with the risk limit system, including statutory limits concerning global exposure and counterparty risk, as required by COLL 5.2 (General investment powers and limits for UCITS schemes) and COLL 5.3 (Derivative exposure) or, where appropriate, the relevant UCITS Home State measures implementing articles 41, 42 and 43 of the UCITS implementing Directive;(c)
(1) The operator must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom for any person where: (a) information in English can be obtained about prices of units in the scheme; and(b) a participant may redeem or arrange for redemption of units in the scheme and obtain payment. (2) An operator is treated as complying with paragraph (1) if it ensures participants may sell their units on an investment exchange at a price not significantly different from net asset value; and if so, must inform
Voting rights attaching to the following shares are to be disregarded for the purposes of determining whether a person has a notification obligation in accordance with the thresholds in DTR 5.1.2 R:(1) shares acquired for the sole purpose of clearing and settlement within a settlement cycle not exceeding the period beginning with the transaction and ending at the close of the third trading day following the day of the execution of the transaction (irrespective of whether the transaction
In complying with the rule on systems and controls in relation to compliance, financial crime and money laundering (SYSC 3.2.6 R), a firm should maintain governance arrangements designed to ensure that it complies with, maintains and records, any applicable PPFM. These arrangements should:(1) be appropriate to the scale, nature and complexity of the firm'swith-profits business; and(2) include the approval of the firm'sPPFM by its governing body.
(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors. (3) The rule will be effective for
(1) In determining whether a UK recognised body's procedures for consulting members and other users of its facilities are appropriate, the FSA may have regard to the range of persons to be consulted by the UK recognised body under those procedures. (2) In the FSA's view, consultation with a smaller range of persons may be appropriate where limited, technical changes to a UK recognised body's rules are proposed.(3) In the FSA's view, a UK recognised body's procedures may include
(1) The nature and extent of the systems and controls which a firm will need to maintain under SYSC 3.1.1 R will depend upon a variety of factors including:(a) the nature, scale and complexity of its business;(b) the diversity of its operations, including geographical diversity;(c) the volume and size of its transactions; and(d) the degree of risk associated with each area of its operation.(2) To enable it to comply with its obligation to maintain appropriate systems and controls,
Section 87A(1) of the Act provides for the approval of a prospectus by the FSA:
(1) |
The [FSA] may not approve a prospectus unless it is satisfied that: |
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(a) |
the United Kingdom is the home State in relation to the issuer of the transferable securities to which it relates, |
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(b) |
the prospectus contains the necessary information, and |
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(c) |
all of the other requirements imposed by or in accordance with this Part or the prospectus directive have been complied with (so far as those requirements apply to a prospectus for the transferable securities in question). |
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A firm should ensure the adequacy of its processes and systems to review external documentation prior to issue (including review by its compliance, legal and marketing departments or by appropriately qualified external advisers). In doing so, a firm should have regard to:(1) compliance with applicable regulatory and other requirements;1(2) the extent to which its documentation uses standard terms (that are widely recognised, and have been tested in the courts) or non-standard
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FSA may have regard to any relevant factor including, but not limited to:(1) the commitment shown by the UK recognised body'sgoverning body to satisfying the recognition requirements and to complying with other obligations in or under the Act;(2) its arrangements, policies and resources for fulfilling its obligations under the Act in relation to its activities as a UK recognised body;(3) the extent to
Where a listedcompany has taken a power in its constitution to impose sanctions on a shareholder who is in default in complying with a notice served under section 7932 of the Companies Act 2006 (Notice by company requiring information about interests in its shares)2:22(1) sanctions may not take effect earlier than 14 days after service of the notice;(2) for a shareholding of less than 0.25% of the shares of a particular class (calculated exclusive of treasury shares), the only
(1) No person other than the authorised fund manager may impose charges on unitholders or potential unitholders when they buy or sell units.(2) An authorised fund manager must not make any charge or levy in connection with:(a) the issue or sale of units except where a preliminary charge is made in accordance with the prospectus of the scheme which must be either a fixed amount or calculated as a percentage of the price of a unit; or(b) the redemption or cancellation of units,
If it appears to the FSA that an appropriate actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an actuary is being considered or put into effect, see EG 153 (Disqualification of auditors and actuaries)2. A list of actuaries who have been disqualified by the FSA may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).3
(1) A valuer may be considered competent if he is a suitably qualified member of a professional body.(2) A valuer may be considered independent if:(a) the customer can choose the valuer subject to the firm objecting on reasonable grounds and to the valuer being competent;(b) he owes a duty of care to the customer in valuing the property; and(c) the customer has an appropriate remedy against him under a complaints procedure which allows the complaint to be referred to an independent