Related provisions for INSPRU 3.1.59

81 - 100 of 197 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

BIPRU 1.2.7RRP
A CRD financial instrument means any contract that gives rise to both a financial asset of one party and a financial liability or equity instrument of another party.[Note: CAD Article 3(1)(e)]
BIPRU 1.2.9GRP
Generally, for the purpose of the definition of CRD financial instrument:(1) a financial asset means cash, the right to receive cash or another financial asset, the contractual right to exchange financial assets on potentially favourable terms or an equity instrument; and(2) a financial liability means the contractual obligation to deliver cash or another financial asset or to exchange financial liabilities under conditions that are potentially unfavourable.
COLL 6.12.3RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must use a risk management process enabling it to monitor and measure at any time the risk of the scheme's positions and their contribution to the overall risk profile of the scheme.(2) An authorised fund manager (excluding the EEA UCITS management company of a UCITS scheme) or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must regularly notify the following details
COLL 6.12.4GRP
(1) The risk management process in COLL 6.12.3 R should take account of the investment objectives and policy of the scheme as stated in the most recent prospectus.(2) The depositary of a UCITS scheme should take reasonable care to review the appropriateness of the risk management process in line with its duties under COLL 6.6.4 R (General duties of the depositary) and COLL 6.6.14 R (Duties of the depositary and authorised fund manager: investment and borrowing powers), as appropriate.
COLL 6.2.4GRP
(1) Details of any initial offer period must be provided in the relevant prospectus as described in COLL 4.2.5R (17)(h) (Table: contents of the prospectus).(2) It may be appropriate that the initial offer for a scheme operating limited issue or limited redemption arrangements, or intending to invest in illiquid assets, is longer than one for a scheme which does not have these features.
COLL 6.2.15RRP
The depositary may take into or pay out of scheme property assets other than cash2 as payment for the issue or cancellation of units2 but only if:(1) it has taken reasonable care to ensure that the property concerned would not be likely to result in any material prejudice to the interests of unitholders; and(2) the instrument constituting the scheme so provides.
CREDS 2.2.26GRP
The main reasons why a credit union should maintain adequate accounting and other records are:(1) to provide the committee of management with adequate financial and other information to enable it to conduct its business in a prudent manner on a day-to-day basis;(2) to safeguard the assets of the credit union and the interests of members and persons too young to be members; (3) to assist officers of the credit union to fulfil their regulatory and statutory duties in relation to
CREDS 2.2.45GRP
The internal audit work programme should include items such as:(1) verification of cash (counting and reconciliation) without prior notification;(2) bank reconciliation (checking records against bank statements);(3) verification of passbooks or account statements;(4) checking for compliance with policies and procedures;(5) checking for compliance with relevant Acts, secondary legislation and rules;(6) checking minutes and reports of the committee of management and other sub-committees
SUP 16.12.22ARRP

2The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

11Description ofData item

Firms'15 prudential category and applicable data item (note 1)

15

BIPRU 730K firm

BIPRU 125K firmandUCITS investment firm

BIPRU 50K firm

Exempt CAD firmssubject toIPRU(INV)Chapter 13

Firms(other thanexempt CAD firms) subject toIPRU(INV)Chapter 13

Firmsthat are also in one or more ofRAGs1 to 6 and not subject toIPRU(INV)Chapter 13

Annual report and accounts

No standard format

No standard format

Annual report and accounts of the mixed-activity holding company (note 10)

No standard format

Solvency statement

No standard format (note 11)

Balance Sheet

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA02924

Section A RMAR

Income Statement

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA03024

24

Section B RMAR

Capital Adequacy

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA032

Section D1 and D2 RMAR

Credit risk

FSA004 (notes 2, 3)

FSA004 (notes 2, 3)

FSA004 (notes 2, 3)

Market risk

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

Market risk - supplementary

FSA006 (note 5)

FSA006 (note 5)

FSA006 (note 5)

Operational risk

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

Large exposures

FSA008 (Notes 2, 615)

15

FSA008 (Notes 2, 615)

15

FSA008 (Notes 2, 615)

15

UK integrated group large exposures

FSA018 (note 12)

FSA018 (note 12)

FSA018 (note 12)

Solo consolidation data

FSA016

FSA016

FSA016

Pillar 2 questionnaire

FSA019 (note 8)

FSA019 (note 8)

FSA019 (note 8)

Non-EEA sub-group

FSA028 (note 9)

FSA028 (note 9)

FSA028 (note 9)

Professional indemnity insurance (note 15)

Section E RMAR

Section E RMAR

Section E RMAR

Section E RMAR

Section E RMAR

Threshold Conditions

Section F RMAR

Section F RMAR

Training and Competence

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

Section G RMAR

COBS data

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Section H RMAR

Client money and client assets

Section C RMAR

Section C RMAR

Section C RMAR

Section C RMAR

Section C RMAR

Fees and levies

Section J RMAR

Section J RMAR

Section J RMAR

Section J RMAR

Section J RMAR

IRB portfolio risk

FSA045 (note 13)

FSA045 (note 13)

FSA045 (note 13)

Securitisation: non-trading book15

FSA046 (note 14)

FSA046 (note 14)

FSA046 (note 14)

13Daily Flows

FSA047 (Notes 16, 19, 21 and 24)21

21

13Enhanced Mismatch Report

FSA048 (Notes 16, 19, 21 and 24)21

21

13Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities

FSA050 (Notes 17, 20, 21 and 24)21

21

13Funding Concentration

FSA051 (Notes 17, 20, 21 and 24)21

21

13Pricing data

FSA052 (Notes 17, 20, 24 and 25)2122

21

13Retail and corporate funding

FSA053 (Notes 17, 20, 21 and 24)21

21

13Currency Analysis

FSA054 (Notes 17, 20, 21 and 24)21

21

13Systems and Controls Questionnaire

FSA055 (Notes 18 and 24)21

21

15Securitisation: trading book

FSA058 (Note 22)

FSA058 (Note 22)

FSA058 (Note 22)

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24 R, or SUP 16 Annex 18A R in the case of the RMAR. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25 G, or SUP 16 Annex 18B G in the case of the RMAR.

Note 2

Firms that are members of a UK consolidation group are also required to submit this report on a UK consolidation group basis.

Note 3

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any tine within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA004 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 77A in data item FSA003 is greater than £10 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 4

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA005 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 93A in data item FSA003 is greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 5

Only applicable to firms with a VaR model permission.

Note 6

This will not be applicable to BIPRUlimited activity firms or BIPRUlimited licence firms unless they have a waiver under BIPRU 6.1.2 G.

Note 7

This is only applicable to a firm that has adopted, in whole or in part, either the standardised approach, alternative standardised approach, or advanced measurement approach under BIPRU 6.

Note 8

Only applicable to BIPRUinvestment firms that:

(a) are subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8, except those that are either included within the consolidated supervision of a group that includes a UK credit institution, or that have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or

(b) have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or

(c) are not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8.

A BIPRU investment firm under (a) must complete the report on the basis of its UK consolidation group. A BIPRU investment firm under (b) or (c) must complete the report on the basis of its solo position.

Note 9

This will be applicable to firms that are members of a UK consolidation group on the reporting date.

Note 10

Only applicable to a firm whose ultimate parent is a mixed-activity holding company.

Note 11

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or a partnership, when the report must be submitted by each partner.24

24

Note 12

Members of a UK integrated group should only submit this data item at the UK integrated group level.

Note 13

Only applicable to firms that have an IRB permission.

Note 14

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of15securitisations of non-trading bookexposures15.

Note 15

This item only applies to firms that are subject to an FSA requirement to hold professional indemnity insurance and are not exempt CAD firms.

13Note 16

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases (if applicable).

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a DLG by default and is a UK lead regulated firm, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(3) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(4) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

13Note 17

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases that are applicable.

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis unless it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

13Note 18

If it is a non-ILAS BIPRU firm, it must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

13Note 19

(1) This item must be reported in the reporting currency.

(2) If any data element is in a currency or currencies other than the reporting currency, all currencies (including the reporting currency) must be combined into a figure in the reporting currency.

(3) In addition, all material currencies (which may include the reporting currency) must each be recorded separately (translated into the reporting currency). However if:

(a) the reporting frequency is (whether under a rule or under a waiver) quarterly or less than quarterly; or

(b) the only material currency is the reporting currency;

(3) does not apply.

(4) If there are more than three material currencies for this data item, (3) only applies to the three largest in amount. A firm must identify the largest in amount in accordance with the following procedure.

(a) For each currency, take the largest of the asset or liability figure as referred to in the definition of material currency.

(b) Take the three largest figures from the resulting list of amounts.

(5) The date as at which the calculations for the purposes of the definition of material currency are carried out is the last day of the reporting period in question.

(6) The reporting currency for this data item is whichever of the following currencies the firm chooses, namely USD (the United States Dollar), EUR (the euro), GBP (sterling), JPY (the Japanese Yen), CHF (the Swiss Franc), CAD (the Canadian Dollar) or SEK (the Swedish Krona).

13Note 20

Note 19 applies, except that paragraph (3) does not apply, meaning that material currencies must not be recorded separately.

13Note 21

Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements for the data item in question if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period. If the change is that the firm does not have to report a particular data item or does not have to report it at a particular reporting level, the firm must nevertheless report that item or at that reporting level for any reporting period that has already begun. This paragraph is subject to anything that the intra-group liquidity modification says to the contrary.

15Note 22

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions in the trading book and/25 or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations held in the trading book.2521

21Note 24

FSA047, FSA048, FSA050, FSA051, FSA052, FSA053 and FSA054 must be completed by an ILAS BIPRU firm. An ILAS BIPRU firm does not need to complete FSA055. A non-ILAS BIPRU firm must complete FSA055 and does not need to complete FSA047, FSA048, FSA050, FSA051, FSA052, FSA053 and FSA054.22

22Note 25

This data item must be reported only in the currencies named in FSA052, so that liabilities in GBP are reported in GBP in rows 1 to 4, those in USD are reported in USD in rows 5 to 8, and those in Euro are reported in Euro in rows 9 to 12. Liabilities in other currencies are not to be reported.

SUP 16.12.25ARRP

2The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to type of firm in the table below:

Description of data item

Firms'15 prudential category and applicable data item(note 1)21

15

BIPRU

Firmsother thanBIPRU firms

730K

125K

50K

IPRU(INV)Chapter 3

IPRU(INV)Chapter 5

IPRU(INV)Chapter 9

IPRU(INV)Chapter 133

UPRU

Annual report and accounts11

11

No standard format8

Annual report and accounts11 of the mixed-activity holding company (note 10)

No standard format

Solvency statement (note 11)

No standard format

No standard format5

Balance sheet

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA029

11

FSA029

11

FSA029

Section A RMAR (note 17)5or FSA02911

11
11

Income statement

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA030

11

FSA030

11

FSA030

Section B RMAR (note 17)5or FSA03011

11

FSA030

11

Capital adequacy

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA033

11

FSA034 or FSA035 (note 14)

11

FSA03111

Section D1 and D2 RMAR (note 17)5 or FSA 032 (note 15)

11

FSA036

11

Credit risk

FSA004 (note 2, 3)

FSA004 (note 2, 3)

FSA004 (note 2, 3)

Market risk

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

Market risk - supplementary

FSA006 (note 5)

FSA006 (note 5)

FSA006 (note 5)

Operational risk

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

Large exposures

FSA008 (Notes 2, 615)

15

FSA008 (Notes 2, 615)

15

FSA008 (Notes 2, 615)

15

UK Integrated group large exposures

FSA018 (note 12)

FSA018 (note 12)

FSA018 (note 12)

Solo consolidation data

FSA016

(note 20)11

FSA016

(note 20)11

FSA016

(note 20)11

Pillar 2 questionnaire

FSA019 (note 8)

FSA019 (note 8)

FSA019 (note 8)

Non-EEA sub-group

FSA028 (note 9)

FSA028 (note 9)

FSA028 (note 9)3

5Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR (note 17)

11

Client money and client assets11

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

Section C RMAR (Note 13) or 24FSA039

FSA03911

24

6IRB portfolio risk

FSA045 (note 18)

FSA045 (note 18)

FSA045 (note 18)

6Securitisation: non-trading book15

FSA046 (note 19)

FSA046 (note 19)

FSA046 (note 19)

13Daily Flows

FSA047 (Notes 21, 24, 26 and 28)21

21

13Enhanced Mismatch Report

FSA048 (Notes 21, 24, 26 and 28)21

21

13Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities

FSA050 (Notes 22, 25, 26 and 28)21

21

13Funding Concentration

FSA051 (Notes 22, 25, 26 and 28)21

21

13Pricing data

FSA052 (Notes 22, 26, 28 and 29)2122

21

13Retail and corporate funding

FSA053 (Notes 22, 25, 26 and 28)21

21

13Currency Analysis

FSA054 (Notes 22, 25, 26 and 28)21

21

13Systems and Controls Questionnaire

FSA055 (Notes 23 and 28)21

21

15Securitisation: trading book

FSA058 (Note 27)

FSA058 (Note 27)

FSA058 (Note 27)

Note 1:

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24 R. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25 G.

Note 2

Firms that are members of a UK consolidation group are also required to submit this report on a UK consolidation group basis.

11

Note 3

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA004 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.11

The threshold is exceeded where data element 77A in data item FSA003 is greater than £10 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.11

11

Note 4

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA005 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded. 11

The threshold is exceeded where data element 93A in data item FSA003 is greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.11

11

Note 5

Only applicable to firms with a VaR model permission.11

11

Note 6

This will not be applicable to BIPRU limited activity firms or BIPRU limited licence firms unless they have a waiver under BIPRU 6.1.2 G.

Note 7

This is only applicable to a firm that has adopted, in whole or in part, either the standardised approach, alternative standardised approach, or advanced measurement approach11under BIPRU 6.3

11

Note 8

Only applicable to BIPRU investment firms5that :

(a) are subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8, except those that are either included within the consolidated supervision of a group that includes a UK credit institution, or that have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or11

(b) have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or11

(c) are 11not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8.

A BIPRU investment firm5under (a) must11 complete the report on the basis of its UK consolidation group. A BIPRU investment firm5 under (b) or (c) must11 complete the report on the basis of its solo position.

1111111111

Note 9

This will be applicable to firms that are members of a UK consolidation group4 on the reporting date.

11

Note 10

Only applicable to a firm whose ultimate parent is a mixed-activity holding company.

Note 11

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or a partnership, when the report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 12

Members of a UK integrated group should only submit this data item at the UK integrated group level.

11

Note 13

FSA039 must only be completed by a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm. Section C RMAR must only be completed by a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is not an exempt CAD firm.24

24

Note 14

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.

FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2) R.

Note 15

FSA032 must be completed by a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm.

5

Note 16

[deleted]11

11

5Note 17

This is only applicable to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 that is not an exempt CAD firm.

6Note 18

Only applicable to firms that have an IRB permission.11

11

6Note 19

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of 15securitisations of non-trading bookexposures15.

15

11Note 20

Only applicable to a firm that has a solo consolidation waiver.

13Note 21

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases (if applicable).

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it a group liquidity reporting firm in a DLG by default and is a UK lead regulated firm, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(3) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(4) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

13Note 22

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases that are applicable.

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis unless it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

13Note 23

If it is a non-ILAS BIPRU firm, it must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

13Note 24

(1) This item must be reported in the reporting currency.

(2) If any data element is in a currency or currencies other than the reporting currency, all currencies (including the reporting currency) must be combined into a figure in the reporting currency.

(3) In addition, all material currencies (which may include the reporting currency) must each be recorded separately (translated into the reporting currency). However if:

(a) the reporting frequency is (whether under a rule or under a waiver) quarterly or less than quarterly; or

(b) the only material currency is the reporting currency;

(3) does not apply.

(4) If there are more than three material currencies for this data item, (3) only applies to the three largest in amount. A firm must identify the largest in amount in accordance with the following procedure.

(a) For each currency, take the largest of the asset or liability figure as referred to in the definition of material currency.

(b) Take the three largest figures from the resulting list of amounts.

(5) The date as at which the calculations for the purposes of the definition of material currency are carried out is the last day of the reporting period in question.

(6) The reporting currency for this data item is whichever of the following currencies the firm chooses, namely USD (the United States Dollar), EUR (the euro), GBP (sterling), JPY (the Japanese Yen), CHF (the Swiss Franc), CAD (the Canadian Dollar) or SEK (the Swedish Krona).

13Note 25

Note 24 applies, except that paragraph (3) does not apply, meaning that material currencies must not be recorded separately.

13Note 26

Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements for the data item in question if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period. If the change is that the firm does not have to report a particular data item or does not have to report it at a particular reporting level, the firm must nevertheless report that item or at that reporting level for any reporting period that has already begun. This paragraph is subject to anything that the intra-group liquidity modification says to the contrary.15

15Note 27

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions in the trading book and/25or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations held in the trading book.2521

25

21Note 28

FSA047, FSA048, FSA050, FSA051, FSA052, FSA053 and FSA054 must be completed by an ILAS BIPRU firm. An ILAS BIPRU firm does not need to complete FSA055. A non-ILAS BIPRU firm must complete FSA055 and does not need to complete FSA047, FSA048, FSA050, FSA051, FSA052, FSA053 and FSA054.22

22Note 29

This data item must be reported only in the currencies named in FSA052, so that liabilities in GBP are reported in GBP in rows 1 to 4, those in USD are reported in USD in rows 5 to 8, and those in Euro are reported in Euro in rows 9 to 12. Liabilities in other currencies are not to be reported.

BIPRU 4.2.8GRP
This paragraph provides further guidance on BIPRU 4.2.2 R and in particular BIPRU 4.2.2 R (2). In the FSA's view risk management has an essential role in informing risk decisions. However, an essential role does not necessarily mean an exclusive role or even always a primary role. There may be justifiable differences between the IRB approach and the firm's use of rating systems for its internal purposes as referred to in BIPRU 4.2.2 R (2). For example, internal standards and policies
BIPRU 4.2.10GRP
To the extent that a firm uses LGD estimates in its internal risk management processes that differ from the downturn LGDs used in the calculation of risk weighted assets3 (see BIPRU 4.3.103 R), the reasons for the difference should be documented in accordance with BIPRU 4.3.109 R.
PERG 2.8.7GRP
The activities of persons appointed under a power of attorney are excluded under article 38 of the Regulated Activities Order, from the regulated activity of managing investments, if specified conditions are satisfied. The exclusion only applies where a person is not carrying on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation and is subject to further limitations discussed below2. In addition, the following exclusions (outlined in PERG 2.9) apply in specified circumstances where
PERG 2.8.8GRP
The exclusions from the regulated activity of safeguarding and administering investments are as follows.(1) Safeguarding and administration activities carried on by one person are excluded if a specified third party undertakes a responsibility for the assets which is no less onerous than it would have been if he were doing the safeguarding and administration himself. The effect of this is that an authorised person with permission to carry on this regulated activity (or in certain
BIPRU 4.3.2RRP
Each exposure must be assigned to one of the following exposure classes:(1) claims or contingent claims on central governments and central banks;(2) claims or contingent claims on institutions;(3) claims or contingent claims on corporates;(4) retail claims or contingent retail claims;(5) equity claims;(6) securitisation positions; and(7) non credit-obligation assets.[Note: BCD Article 86(1)]
BIPRU 4.3.4RRP
The risk weighted exposure amounts for credit risk for exposures belonging to one of the exposure classes referred to in (1) to (4) must, unless deducted from capital resources, be calculated in accordance with the following provisions:(1) for exposures in the sovereign, institution and corporate IRB exposure class, BIPRU 4.4.57 R to BIPRU 4.4.60 R, BIPRU 4.4.79 R, BIPRU 4.5.8 R to BIPRU 4.5.10 R (for specialised lending exposures), BIPRU 4.9.3 R and BIPRU 4.8.16 R to BIPRU 4.8.17
BIPRU 7.2.48BRRP
3The firm must report to the FSA the total sum of its weighted net long and net short securitisation and resecuritisation positions, broken down by types of underlying assets.
BIPRU 7.2.49RRP
A debt security is a qualifying debt security if:(1) it qualifies for a credit quality step under the standardised approach to credit risk corresponding at least to investment grade; or(2) it has a PD which, because of the solvency of the issuer, is not higher than that of the debt securities referred to under (1) under the IRB approach; or(3) it is a debt security for which a credit assessment by a nominated ECAI is unavailable and which meets the following conditions:(a) it
8A BIPRU firm must not include a capital instrument that is not a share at stage B1, B2 or C of the calculation in the capital resources table unless (in addition to satisfying all the other requirements in relation to tier one capital and hybrid capital) the firm's obligations under the instrument either:(1) do not constitute a liability (actual, contingent or prospective) under section 123(2) of the Insolvency Act 1986; or(2) do constitute such a liability but the terms of the
GENPRU 2.2.117GRP
The effect of GENPRU 2.2.116 R and GENPRU 2.2.116A R8 is that if a potential tier one instrument does constitute a liability, this should only be the case when the firm is able to pay that liability but chooses not to do so. As tier one capital resources for an insurer8 should be undated, this will generally only be relevant on a solvent winding up of the firm. The holder should agree that the firm has no liability (including any contingent or prospective liability) to pay any
BIPRU 7.10.55IRRP
3The liquidity horizon for a securitisation warehouse must reflect the time to build, sell and securitise the assets, or to hedge the material risk factors, under stressed market conditions.
BIPRU 7.10.74RRP
A firm must have procedures to ensure that the valuation of assets and liabilities is appropriate, that valuation uncertainty is identified and appropriate reserving is undertaken where necessary.
SYSC 5.1.8GRP
The effective segregation of duties is an important element in the internal controls of a firm in the prudential context. In particular, it helps to ensure that no one individual is completely free to commit a firm's assets or incur liabilities on its behalf. Segregation can also help to ensure that a firm'sgoverning body receives objective and accurate information on financial performance, the risks faced by the firm and the adequacy of its systems.
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 or section 288of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

1111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1379 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus in relation to a Depositary Receipt.7

7137977

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FSA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FSA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FSA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus, a prospectus in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FSA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) An applicant for a ceding insurer's waiver.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.916

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

BIPRU 14.2.9GRP
The operation of BIPRU 14.2.8 R can be illustrated by an example as follows: where the credit derivative is a first to default transaction, the appropriate percentage for the potential future credit exposure will be determined by the lowest credit quality of the underlying obligations in the basket. If there are non-qualifying items in the basket, the percentage applicable to the non-qualifying reference obligation should be used. For second and subsequent to default transactions,
COLL 5.5.9RRP
(1) An ICVC or a depositary for the account of an authorised fund must not provide any guarantee or indemnity in respect of the obligation of any person.(2) None of the scheme property of an authorised fund may be used to discharge any obligation arising under a guarantee or indemnity with respect to the obligation of any person.(3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply to:(a) any indemnity or guarantee given for margin requirements where the derivatives or forward transactions
RCB 3.2.2DRP
Before providing the confirmation required by this section, the issuer must obtain and consider written advice or reports from suitable independent third party advisers such as accountants and, where appropriate, lawyers.
PERG 8.31.4GRP
For example, it may be necessary for a person referred to in PERG 8.31.3G (1) or PERG 8.31.3G (2) to advise a client to sell all his assets for tax, legal or debt reduction reasons. However, it may not be necessary for him to recommend selling some investments and not others. Whether or not this is the case will depend on the circumstances in which the advice is given.
DEPP 6.5B.4GRP
(1) If the FSA considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the individual who committed the breach, or others, from committing further or similar breaches then the FSA may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FSA may do this include:(a) where the FSA considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the breach to meet its objective of credible deterrence;(b) where previous FSA action in respect of similar breaches has failed
PERG 9.11.1GRP

Table There are some frequently asked questions about the application of the definition of an open-ended investment company in the following table. This table belongs to PERG 9.2.4 G (Introduction).

Question

Answer

1

Can a body corporate be both open-ended and closed-ended at the same time?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'no'. The fact that the investment condition is applied to BC (rather than to particular shares in, or securities of, BC) means that a body corporate is either an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act or it is not. Where BC is an open-ended investment company, all of its securities would be treated as units of a collective investment scheme for the purpose of the Act. A body corporate formed in another jurisdiction may, however, be regarded as open-ended under the laws of that jurisdiction but not come within the definition of an open-ended investment company in section 236 (and vice versa).

2

Can an open-ended investment company become closed-ended (or a closed-ended body become open-ended)?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'yes'. A body corporate may change from open-ended to closed-ended (and vice versa) if, taking an overall view, circumstances change so that a hypothetical reasonable investor would consider that the investment condition is no longer met (or vice versa). This might happen where, for example, an open-ended investment company stops its policy of redeeming shares or securities at regular intervals (so removing the expectation that a reasonable investor would be able to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable). See also PERG 9.7.5 G.

3

Does the liquidation of a body corporate affect the assessment of whether or not the body is an open-ended investment company?

The FSA considers that the possibility that a body corporate that would otherwise be regarded as closed-ended may be wound up has no effect at all on the nature of the body corporate before the winding up. The fact that, on a winding up, the shares or securities of any investor in the body corporate may be converted into cash or money on the winding up (and so 'realised') would not, in the FSA's view, affect the outcome of applying the expectation test to the body corporate when looked at as a whole. The answer to Question 4 explains that investment in a closed-ended fixed term company shortly before its winding up does not, in the FSA's view, change the closed-ended nature of the company. For companies with no fixed term, the theoretical possibility of a winding up at some uncertain future point is not, in the FSA's view, a matter that would generally carry weight with a reasonable investor in assessing whether he could expect to be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period.

4

Does a fixed term closed-ended investment company become an open-ended investment company simply because the fixed term will expire?

In the FSA's view, the answer to this is 'no'. The termination of the body corporate is an event that has always been contemplated (and it will appear in the company's constitution). Even as the date of the expiry of the fixed term approaches, there is nothing about the body corporate itself that changes so as to cause a fundamental reassessment of its nature as something other than closed-ended. Addressing this very point in parliamentary debate, the Economic Secretary to the Treasury stated that the "aim and effect [of the definition] is to cover companies that look, to a reasonable investor, like open-ended investment companies". The Minister added that "A reasonable investor's overall expectations of potential investment in a company when its status with respect to the definition is being judged will determine whether it meets the definition. The matter is therefore, definitional rather than one of proximity to liquidation". (Hansard HC, 5 June 2000 col 124).

5

In what circumstances will a body corporate that issues a mixture of redeemable and non-redeemable shares or securities be an open-ended investment company?

In the FSA's view, the existence of non-redeemable shares or securities will not, of itself, rule out the possibility of a body corporate falling within the definition of an open-ended investment company. All the relevant circumstances will need to be considered (see PERG 9.6.4 G, PERG 9.2.8.8G and PERG 9.8.9 G). So the following points need to be taken into account.

  • The precise terms of the issue of all the shares or securities will be relevant to the question whether the investment condition is met, as will any arrangements that may exist to allow the investor to realise his investment by other means.
  • The proportions of the different share classes will be relevant to the impression the reasonable investor forms of the body corporate. A body corporate that issues only a minimal amount of redeemable shares or securities will not, in theFSA's view, be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that issues a minimal amount of non-redeemable shares or securities will be likely to be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that falls within the definition of an open-ended investment company is likely to have (and to be marketed as having) mainly redeemable shares or securities. However, whether or not the body corporate does fall within the definition in any particular case will be subject to any contrary indications there may be in its constitutional documents or otherwise.
  • Where shares or securities are only redeemable after the end of a stated period, this factor will make it more likely that the body corporate is open-ended than if the shares or securities are never redeemable.

6

Does "realised on a basis calculated wholly or mainly by reference to..." in section 236(3)(b) apply to an investor buying investment trust company shares traded on a recognised investment exchange because of usual market practice that the shares trade at a discount to asset value?

In the FSA's view, the answer is 'no' (for the reasons set out in PERG 9.9.4 G to PERG 9.9.6 G).

7

Does the practice of UK investment trust companies buying back shares result in them becoming open-ended investment companies?

In the FSA's view, it does not, because its actions will comply with company law: see section 236(4) of the Act and PERG 9.6.5 G.

8

Would a body corporate holding out redemption or repurchase of its shares or securities every six months be an open-ended investment company?

In the FSA's view a period of six months would generally be too long to be a reasonable period for a liquid securities fund. A shorter period affording more scope for an investor to take advantage of any profits caused by fluctuations in the market would be more likely to be a reasonable period for the purpose of the realisation of the investment (in the context of the 'expectation' test, see PERG 9.8 and, in particular, PERG 9.8.9 G which sets out the kind of factors that may need to be considered in applying the test).

9

Would an initial period during which it is not possible to realise investment in a body corporate mean that the body corporate could not satisfy the investment condition?

In the FSA's view, the answer to that question is 'no'. In applying the investment condition, the body corporate must be considered as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G). At the time that the shares or securities in a body corporate are issued, a reasonable investor may expect that he will be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period notwithstanding that there will first be a short-term delay before he can do so. Whether or not the 'expectation test' is satisfied will depend on all the circumstances (see PERG 9.8.9 G).