Related provisions for PERG 7.5.2

SUP 12.4.1AG30/06/2004

1The effect of sections 20 (Authorised persons acting without permission) and 39(4) (Exemption of appointed representatives) of the Act is that the regulated activities covered by an appointed representative's appointment need to:(1) fall within the scope of the principal's permission; or(2) be excluded from being regulated activities when carried on by the principal, for example because they fall within article 28 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging transactions to which

SUP 12.4.10G28/08/2007

(1) 1The FSA has the power to decide not to include on the Register (or to remove from the Register) an appointed representative whose scope of appointment includes an insurance mediation activity, if it appears to the FSA that he is not a fit and proper person to carry on those activities (article 95 of the Regulated Activities Order).(2) If the FSA proposes to use the power in (1), it must give the appointed representative a warning notice. If the FSA decides to proceed with

FEES 4.4.9D01/06/2011

3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FSA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444

PERG 7.4.2G30/06/2010

But the exclusion applies only if the principal purpose of the publication or service is not:(1) to advise on securities or relevant investments or home finance transactions1: or1(2) to lead or enable persons:(a) to buy, sell, subscribe for or underwrite securities or relevant investments; or1(b) to enter as borrower into regulated mortgage contracts, or vary the terms of regulated mortgage contracts entered into by them 1as borrower on or after 31 October 2004; or111(c) 1to

PERG 7.4.5G30/06/2010

The exclusion applies only if the principal purpose of the publication or service is not:(1) to give advice on securities, relevant investments or home finance transactions1(see PERG 7.3.1 G); or1(2) to lead or enable persons to:(a) buy, sell, subscribe for or underwrite securities or relevant investments; or(b) to enter as borrower into regulated mortgage contracts, or vary the terms of regulated mortgage contracts entered into by them 1 as borrower on or after 31 October 2004;

CASS 6.1.1CG01/01/2009

2In accordance with article 42 of the Regulated Activities Order, a firm ("I") will not be arranging safeguarding and administration of assets if it introduces a client to another firm whose permitted activities include the safeguarding and administration of investments, or to an exempt person acting as such, with a view to that other firm or exempt person:(1) providing a safe custody service in the United Kingdom; or(2) arranging for the provision of a safe custody service in

FEES 3.2.7R01/02/2012

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)	(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. (2) In respect of a particular application which is: (i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and (ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 1	On or before the application is made
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4	(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable	On or before the notice of exercise is given
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order	2,000	On or before the application is made
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme	FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1	On or before the application is made
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.	10,000	30 days after the order is granted
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17 (i) under section 287 or section 288of the Act; or17 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 17	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)	FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1	On or before the date the application is made
(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)	FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches	FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1	An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months
(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting	FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2	On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA
(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year	FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2	On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges	50,000	On or before the date the application is made
2(o) Either:5 (i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or (ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA 5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5 1 1 2 5 5 5	(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1 firm submitting a second application for the permission or5 guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2 5 2 5 1 2 5 5 5 5 5	Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2 2
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission	(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application. (2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1 1 1 11	On or before the date the application is made
2(q) A super7transaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing 13 79 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or (ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus in relation to a Depositary Receipt.7 7 13 79 7 7	50,000	On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3 3 3
2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.	100,0006 6	Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6 5 6
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.	Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.	On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.
6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).	100,000	Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.
7(u) Any of the following: (i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism; (ii) a firm; (iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm; (iv) a market operator; or (v) an MTF operator; that satisfies the following conditions: (1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FSA; and (2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FSA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FSA's systems.	As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(v) A significant transaction, being one where: (i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus, a prospectus in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or (ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring. A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.	20,000	On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.
(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.	FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3	On or before the date the request is made.
(x) (i) An issuer or person who: (1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and (2) requests the FSA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report. (ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table. (iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).	5,000	On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.8
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R	On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations	FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.	(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or (ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g)); the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations	(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application. (2) Where the small payment institution: (i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or (ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. (2) (3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.	On or before the date the application is made.
A financial institution notifying the FSA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.	50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) An applicant for a ceding insurer's waiver.	20,000	On or before the date the application is made.9 16
16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution 14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.	2,500	On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

SUP 12.2.7G01/11/2007

(1) The Appointed Representatives Regulations are made by the Treasury under section 39(1) of the Act. These regulations describe, among other things, the business for which an appointed representative may be exempt, which is business which comprises any of:(a) dealing in investments as agent (article 21 of the Regulated Activities Order) where the transaction relates to a pure protection contract (but only where the contract is not a long-term care insurance contract) or general

PERG 5.12.9G01/07/2005

Article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order (Overseas persons) provides a potential exclusion for persons with no permanent place of business in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are conducted or offers to conduct regulated activities are made. Where these persons carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom, they may be able to take advantage of the exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order. In general terms, these apply where

SYSC 19A.1.2G01/01/2011

Part 2 of SYSC 1 Annex 1 provides for the application of SYSC 4.1.1 R (General Requirements). In particular, and subject to the provisions on group risk systems and controls requirements in SYSC 12, this means that:(1) in relation to what the Remuneration Code applies to, it:(a) applies in relation to regulated activities, activities that constitute dealing in investments as principal (disregarding the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding

PERG 4.16.4G01/07/2005

If an unauthorised SPV arranges for an authorised person with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, it can avoid carrying on the regulated activities of:(1) administering a regulated mortgage contract, because of the exclusion in article 62 of the Regulated Activities Order (described in PERG 4.8.4 G);(2) arranging (bringing about) or making arrangements with a view to regulated mortgage contracts, because any arrangements

GENPRU 3.2.9R01/01/2007

If the Part IV permission of a firm contains a requirement obliging it to comply with this rule with respect to a third-country banking and investment group of which it is a member, it must comply, with respect to that third-country banking and investment group, with the rules in Part 2 of GENPRU 3 Annex 2, as adjusted by Part 3 of that annex.

PRIN 3.1.4G01/12/2001

PRIN 3.1.1 R (3) puts incoming EEA firms on an equal footing with unauthorised overseas persons who utilise the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

PERG 1.5.1G06/10/2010

General guidance on the perimeter is also contained in various FSA documents (mainly fact sheets and frequently asked questions) that are available on the FSA website at www.fsa.gov.uk.These documents, and the URL on which they may be accessed, include:(1) FSA Guidance Note GN9 (2010) on financial regulation for social housing providers which is available at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/pubs/guidance/guidance9.pdf;4124(2) [deleted]212(3) [deleted](4) [deleted]313(5) [deleted]313(6) [deleted]313(7)

PERG 2.5.5G01/11/2007

For persons who are MiFID2investment firms, the activities that must be caught by the Regulated Activities Order are those that are caught by MiFID2. To achieve this result, some of the exclusions in the Order (that will apply to persons who are not caught by MiFID2) have been made unavailable to MiFID2investment firms when they provide or perform investment services and activities. A "MiFID investment firm", for these purposes, includes credit institutions to which MiFID applies

TC App 1.1.1R01/10/2011

1Activity	Products/Sectors		Is there an appropriate qualification4requirement? 4
Designated investment business carried on for a retail client
Providing basic advice	1.	Stakeholder products excluding a deposit-based stakeholder product	No
Advising	2.	Securities which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes 7 or broker funds	Yes
	3.	Derivatives	Yes2
	4.	Packaged products which are not broker funds	Yes2
	5.	Friendly Society life policies where the employee is not reasonably expected to receive a remuneration of greater than £1000 a year in respect of such sales	No2
	6.	Friendly Society tax-exempt policies	Yes2
	7.	Long-term care insurance contracts	Yes2
	8.	Investments in the course of corporate finance business	Yes2
	9.	Advising on syndicate participation at Lloyd's	Yes2
Undertaking the activity in column 2	10.	Broker fund adviser	Yes
Undertaking the activity in column 2	11.	Pension transfer specialist	Yes2
Advising and dealing	12.	Securities which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes 7 or broker funds	Yes
Advising and dealing	13.	Derivatives	Yes2
4Dealing	13A	Securities which are not stakeholder pension schemes, personal pension schemes 7 or broker funds	No
4Dealing	413B	Derivatives	No
Managing	14.	Investments	Yes
Overseeing on a day-to-day basis	15.	Operating a collective investment scheme or undertaking the activities of a trustee or depositary of a collective investment scheme	Yes
	16.	Safeguarding and administering investments or holding client money	Yes2
	17.	Administrative functions in relation to managing investments	Yes2
	18.	Administrative functions in relation to effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance which are life policies	Yes2
	19.	Administrative functions in relation to the operation of stakeholder pension schemes	Yes2
Regulated mortgage activity and reversion activity carried on for a customer
Advising	20.	Regulated mortgage contracts for a non-business purpose	Yes
Advising	21.	Equity release transactions	Yes2
Designing scripted questions for non-advised sales	22.	Equity release transactions	Yes
Overseeing non-advised sales on a day-to-day basis	23.	Equity release transactions	Yes
Non-investment insurance business carried on for a consumer
Advising	24.	Non-investment insurance contracts	No
3 Regulated sale and rent back activity carried on for a customer
Advising	25.	Regulated sale and rent back agreements	No
Overseeing non-advised saleson a day-to-day basis	26.	Regulated sale and rent back agreements	No
Notes:
1.	In the Appendix the heading and types of business specified in the headings are to be read in conjunction with the paragraphs appearing beneath them.
2.	Thus, for example, paragraph 24consistent with the heading above it3, refers only to advice on non-investment insurance contracts given to a consumer. 3

SYSC 4.4.6G06/01/2011

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R

Question		Answer
1	Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person?	An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application).
2	If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?	If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.
3	What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?	The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.
4	If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?	Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).
5	Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?	Yes.
6	Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?	Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).
7	If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?	Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2. But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals will nevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1). If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate. See also Question 14.
8	If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?	Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).
9	What if a firm does not have a chief executive?	Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3. But if the firm: (1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and (2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division; then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.
10	What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?	A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided. If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to: (1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions; together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)
11	How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?	The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but: (1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R). Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 4.4 for an overseas firm. (2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility. The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).
12	How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?	SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R(2) and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R restrict the application of SYSC 4.4.5 R for such a firm. Accordingly: (1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1). (2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch. (3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2). (4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order. See also Questions 1 and 15.
13	What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?	The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).
14	What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?	The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code 5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1). 5
15	What about incoming electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?	SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.

Related provisions for PERG 7.5.2

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