Related provisions for SUP 9.2.4
Table: list of general guidance to be found in PERG.
Chapter: |
Applicable to: |
About: |
Authorisation and regulated activities |
|
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Guidance on the scope of the Electronic Money Regulations8 88 |
a person who needs to know
|
|
Regulated activities connected with mortgages |
any person who needs to know whether the activities he conducts in relation to mortgages are subject to FSA regulation. This is likely to include:
|
the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with mortgages |
Insurance mediation activities |
any person who needs to know whether he carries on insurance mediation activities and is, thereby, subject to FSA regulation. This is likely to include:
|
the scope of relevant orders (in particular, the Regulated Activities Order) as respects activities concerned with the sale or administration of insurance |
Identification of contracts of insurance |
any person who needs to know whether a contract with which he is involved is a contract of insurance |
the general principles and range of specific factors that the FSA regards as relevant in deciding whether any arrangement is a contract of insurance |
Periodical publications, news services and broadcasts: application for certification |
any person who needs to know whether he will be regulated for providing advice about investments through the medium of a periodical publication, a broadcast or a news service |
|
Financial promotion and related activities |
any person who needs to know
|
|
Meaning of open-ended investment company |
any person who needs to know whether a body corporate is an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies) and is therefore a collective investment scheme. |
the circumstances in which a body corporate will be an open-ended investment company |
Activities related to pension schemes |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to pension schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make.1 1 |
|
Property investment clubs and land investment schemes |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to property investment clubs and land investment schemes will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. |
|
Running or advising on personal pension schemes |
any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes will amount to regulated activities |
the regulated activities that arise in connection with establishing, running, advising on or marketing personal pension schemes and any exclusions that may be relevant |
Guidance on the scope of the Markets in Financial Instruments Directive and the recast Capital Adequacy Directive 5 |
Any UK person who needs to know whether MiFID or the recast CADas implemented in the UK apply to him5 |
|
Home reversion,7 home finance and regulated sale and rent back 7activities 7 |
Any person who needs to know whether his activities in relation to home reversion plans,7home purchase plans or regulated sale and rent back agreements7will amount to regulated activities or whether the restriction in section 21 of the Act will apply to any financial promotions he may make. 7 |
|
6PERG 15: Guidance on the scope of the Payment Services Regulations 2009 |
Any person with an establishment in the UK who needs to know whether the Payment Services Directive, as transposed in UK legislation by the Payment Services Regulations 2009, applies to him. Q46 applies specifically to persons providing payment services from an establishment outside the EEA to persons located in the UK. |
the scope of the PSD Regulations 2009. |
Explanatory table: This table belongs to COLL 6.2.2 G (4) (Purpose).
Correction of box management errors |
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1 |
Controls by authorised fund managers |
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An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over: |
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(1) |
its calculations of what units are owned by it (its 'box'); and |
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(2) |
compliance with COLL 6.2.8 R which is intended to prevent a negative box. |
|
2 |
Controls by depositaries |
|
(1) |
Under COLL 6.6.4 (General duties of the depositary), a depositary should take reasonable care to ensure that a scheme2 is managed in accordance with COLL 6.2 (Dealing) and COLL 6.3 (Pricing and valuation). |
|
(2) |
A depositary should therefore make a regular assessment of the authorised fund manager's box management procedures (including supporting systems) and controls. This should include reviewing the authorised fund manager's controls and procedures when the depositary assumes office, on any significant change and on a regular basis, to ensure that a series of otherwise minor changes do not have a cumulative and a significant effect on the accuracy of the controls and procedures. |
|
3 |
Recording and reporting of box management errors |
|
(1) |
An authorised fund manager should record all errors which result in a breach of COLL 6.2.8 R (Controls over the issue and cancellation of units) and as soon as an error is discovered, the authorised fund manager should report the fact to the depositary, together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition of the error. |
|
(2) |
A depositary should report material box management errors to the FSA immediately. Materiality should be determined by taking into account a number of factors including:
|
|
(3) |
A depositary should also make a return to the FSA (in the manner prescribed by SUP 16.6.8 R) on a quarterly basis. |
1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.
Act |
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admission to trading |
admission to trading on a regulated market. |
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advertisement |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements: |
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(1) |
relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and |
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(2) |
aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities. |
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annual information update |
the document referred to in PR 5.2.1 R. |
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applicant |
an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities. |
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asset backed security |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which: |
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(1) |
represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or |
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(2) |
are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets. |
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base prospectus |
a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R. |
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body corporate |
(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom; |
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building block |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up. |
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CARD |
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CESR recommendations |
the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission's Regulation on Prospectuses no 809/2004 published by the Committee of European Securities Regulators. |
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collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type |
(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies: |
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(1) |
the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading; |
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(2) |
the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings. |
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Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive |
Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities. |
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credit institution |
as defined in article 1(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive. |
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director |
(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties. |
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EEA State |
(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom. |
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equity security |
(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer. |
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equity share |
shares comprised in a company'sequity share capital. |
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equity share capital |
(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution. |
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executive procedures |
the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FSA staff under executive procedures)2. 22 |
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FSA |
the Financial Services Authority. |
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guarantee |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment. |
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guarantor |
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Home State or Home Member State |
(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive). |
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Host State or Host Member State |
(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State. |
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3 | [deleted]3 3 |
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3 | [deleted]3 3 |
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issuer |
(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question. |
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The European Parliament and Council Directive on markets in financial instruments (No. 2004/39/EC). See also MiFID Regulation and MiFID implementing Directive.3 |
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non-equity transferable securities |
(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities. |
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Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities". |
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offer |
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offer of transferable securities to the public |
(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary: |
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(a) |
a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on:
to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question; |
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(b) |
which is made in any form or by any means; |
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(c) |
including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary; |
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(d) |
but not including a communication in connection with trading on:
|
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Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act. |
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offering programme |
(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period. |
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offeror |
a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public. |
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overseas company |
a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom. |
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Part 6 rules |
(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act. |
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PD |
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PD Regulation |
Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission. |
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person |
(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership). |
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PR |
the Prospectus Rules sourcebook. |
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profit estimate |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published. |
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profit forecast |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used. |
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property collective investment undertaking |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term. |
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prospectus |
a prospectus required under the prospectus directive. |
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prospectus directive |
the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC). |
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Prospectus Rules |
(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities. |
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Public international body |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members. |
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qualified investor |
(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) : |
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(a) |
any entity falling within the meaning of Article 2(1)(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive; |
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(b) |
An investor registered on the register maintained by the competent authority under section 87R; |
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(c) |
An investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive. |
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register |
register of qualified investors maintained by the FSA under section 87R of the Act. |
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registration document |
a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R. |
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regulated information |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3 |
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regulated market |
a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with the provisions of Title III of MiFID.3 |
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RIS |
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risk factors |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions. |
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rule |
(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FSA under the Act. |
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schedule |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved. |
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securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner |
(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months. |
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securities note |
a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R. |
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small and medium-sized enterprise |
(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000. |
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special purpose vehicle |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities. |
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statutory notice associated decision |
a decision which is made by the FSA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision: |
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statutory notice decision |
a decision by the FSA on whether or not to give a statutory notice. |
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(a) |
to determine or extend the period for making representations; |
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(b) |
to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations; |
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(c) |
to refuse access to FSA material; |
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(d) |
as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates. |
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summary |
(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus. |
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supplementary prospectus |
a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy. |
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transferable security |
(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 3 |
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Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security". |
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umbrella collective investment scheme |
(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities. |
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United Kingdom |
England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man). |
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units of a collective investment scheme |
(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets. |
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working day |
(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom. |
Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)
(1) Category of firm |
(2) Sections applicable to the firm |
(3) Sections applicable to its auditor |
|
(1) |
Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Notes 1 and 6)23 23192323 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19 |
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(2) |
Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 172223 |
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(3) |
Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
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(4) |
Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator21which in each case carries on designated investment business21(Notes 2A and 6)23 23 |
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(5) |
Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business21 (Note 2A) 21 |
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(5A) |
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(6) |
Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV11 (Note 5)7 |
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(7) |
Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15or securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20)15 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9(Notes 3 and 623)17 2391723 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19 |
|
9(7A) |
Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm15) or securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20) not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 231722 |
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9(7B) |
UCITS firm13 (Note 6)23 13 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19 |
|
13(7C) |
UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)2320 2023 |
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17(7D) |
Sole trader or partnership that is a UK20MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)2320 2023 |
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(8) |
Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
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(9)8 |
Home finance provider10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 10 |
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(10)8 |
Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8 17 |
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(11)8 |
Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act |
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(12)8 |
Home finance intermediary10 or home finance administrator10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. 1010 |
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Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R. |
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Note 2 [deleted]23 171723 |
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Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both: (a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and (b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so): (i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and (ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation; having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23). 18 |
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Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3: (a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and (b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor; and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. |
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23 | |||
20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets the relevant criteria in that legislation and fulfils the conditions of regulation 4C(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2007. If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58. |
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17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm20 to which the custody chapter22 or client money chapter applies2220 must have its annual accounts audited. 20202222 |
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Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8 • those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8 • those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8 Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8 |
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Note (5) = In row (6):7 |
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(a)7 |
SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7 |
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(b)7 |
SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567 |
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23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm'spermission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets. |
1Introduction |
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1. |
An accredited body is a body recognised by the FSA to act as an accredited body. |
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2. |
Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including an applicant body in the list, is set out below and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2. |
|
3. |
The role of an accredited body relates to rules in TC which come into force on 31 December 2012. |
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Process for including a body in the list of accredited bodies |
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4. |
In considering the compatibility of a proposed addition with the regulatory objectives, the FSA will determine whether the applicant will, if accredited, contribute to securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers having regard in particular to: |
|
(1) |
the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20; and |
|
(2) |
the rules and practices of the applicant. |
|
5. |
An application to the FSA to be added to the list of accredited bodies should set out how the applicant will satisfy the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 20. The application should be accompanied by a report from a suitable auditor which sets out its independent assessment of the applicant's ability to meet these criteria. An application form is available from the FSA upon request. |
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6. |
When considering an application for accredited body status the FSA may: |
|
(1) |
carry out any enquiries and request any further information that it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators; |
|
(2) |
ask the applicant or its specified representative to answer questions and explain any matter the FSA considers relevant to the application; |
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(3) |
take into account any information which the FSA considers appropriate to the application; and |
|
(4) |
request that any information provided by the applicant or its specified representative is verified in such a manner as the FSA may specify. |
|
7. |
The FSA will confirm its decision in writing to the applicant. |
|
8. |
The FSA will enter into an agreement with the applicant or accredited body which will specify the requirements that the accredited body must meet. These will include the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20. Approval as an accredited body becomes effective only when the name of the applicant is added to the Glossary definition of accredited body. |
|
9. |
Paragraphs 10 to 20 set out the criteria which an applicant should meet to become an accredited body and which an accredited body should meet at all times. |
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Acting in the public interest and furthering the development of the profession |
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10. |
The FSA will expect an accredited body to act in the public interest, to contribute to raising consumer confidence and professional standards in the retail investment advice market and to promoting the profession. |
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Carrying out effective verification services |
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11. |
If independent verification of a retail investment adviser's professional standards has been carried out by an accredited body, the FSA will expect the accredited body to provide the retail investment adviser with evidence of that verification in a durable medium and in a form agreed by the FSA. This is referred to in this Appendix and TC 2.1.28 R as a 'statement of professional standing'. |
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12. |
The FSA will expect an accredited body to have in place effective procedures for carrying out its verification activities. These should include: |
|
(1) |
verifying that each retail investment adviser who is a member of or subscriber to the accredited body's verification service has made an annual declaration in writing that the retail investment adviser has, in the preceding 12 months, complied with APER and completed the continuing professional development required; |
|
(2) |
verifying annually the continuing professional development records of no less than 10% of the retail investment advisers who have used its service in the previous 12 months to ensure that the records are accurate and the continuing professional development completed by the retail investment advisers is appropriate; and |
|
(3) |
verifying that, if required by TC, the retail investment advisers who use its services have attained an appropriate qualification. This should include, where relevant, checking that appropriate qualification gap-fill records have been completed by the retail investment advisers. |
|
13. |
The FSA will not expect an accredited body to carry out the verification in paragraph 12(3) if a retail investment adviser provides the accredited body with evidence in a durable medium which demonstrates that another accredited body has previously verified the retail investment adviser's appropriate qualification, including, where relevant, appropriate qualification gap-fill. |
|
14. |
The FSA will expect an accredited body to make it a contractual condition of membership (where a retail investment adviser is a member of the accredited body) or of using its verification service (where a retail investment adviser is not a member of the accredited body) that, as a minimum, the accredited body will not continue to verify a retail investment adviser's standards and will withdraw its statement of professional standing if the accredited body is provided with false information in relation to a retail investment adviser's qualifications or continuing professional development or a false declaration in relation to a retail investment adviser's compliance with APER. In this regard, an accredited body must have in place appropriate decision-making procedures with a suitable degree of independence and transparency. |
|
Having appropriate systems and controls in place and providing evidence to the FSA of continuing effectiveness |
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15. |
The FSA will expect an accredited body to ensure that it has adequate resources and systems and controls in place in relation to its role as an accredited body. |
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16. |
The FSA will expect an accredited body to have effective procedures in place for the management of conflicts of interest and have a well-balanced governance structure with at least one member who is independent of the sector. |
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17. |
The FSA will expect an accredited body to have a code of ethics and to ensure that its code of ethics and verification service terms and conditions do not contain any provisions that conflict with APER. |
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Ongoing cooperation with the FSA |
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18. |
The FSA will expect an accredited body to provide the FSA with such documents and information as the FSA reasonably requires, and to cooperate with the FSA in an open and transparent manner. |
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19. |
The FSA will expect an accredited body to share information with the FSA (subject to any legal constraints) in relation to the professional standards of the retail investment advisers who use its service as appropriate. Examples might include conduct issues, complaints, dishonestly obtaining or falsifying qualifications or continuing professional development or a failure to complete appropriate continuing professional development. The FSA will expect an accredited body to notify the firm if issues such as these arise. |
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20. |
The FSA will expect an accredited body to submit to the FSA an annual report by a suitable independent auditor which sets out that auditor's assessment of the quality of the body's satisfaction of the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 19 in the preceding 12 months and whether, in the auditor's view, the body is capable of satisfying the criteria in the subsequent 12 months. The FSA will expect this annual report to be submitted to the FSA within three months of the anniversary of the date on which the accredited body was added to the Glossary definition of accredited body. |
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Withdrawal of accreditation |
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21. |
If an accredited body fails or, in the FSA's view, is likely to fail to satisfy the criteria, the FSA will discuss this with the accredited body concerned. If, following a period of discussion, the accredited body has failed to take appropriate corrective action to ensure that it satisfies and will continue to satisfy the criteria, the FSA will withdraw the accredited body's accreditation by removing its name from the list of accredited bodies published in the Glossary. The FSA will expect the body to notify each retail investment adviser holding a current statement of professional standing of the FSA's decision. A statement of professional standing issued by the accredited body before the withdrawal of accreditation will continue to be valid until its expiration. |