Related provisions for SYSC 3.2.6C

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SYSC 13.6.2GRP
A firm should establish and maintain appropriate systems and controls for the management of operational risks that can arise from employees. In doing so, a firm should have regard to:(1) its operational risk culture, and any variations in this or its human resource management practices, across its operations (including, for example, the extent to which the compliance culture is extended to in-house IT staff);(2) whether the way employees are remunerated exposes the firm to the
CASS 9.3.2GRP
(1) Principle 10 (Clients’ assets) requires a firm to arrange adequate protection for client's assets when it is responsible for them. As part of these protections, the custody rules require a firm to take appropriate steps to protect safe custody assets for which it is responsible.(2) A prime brokerage firm should not enter into “right to use arrangements” for a client'ssafe custody assets unless the person to whom the responsibilities set out in CASS 1A.3.1 R have been allocated
DEPP 6A.3.3GRP
The FSA may delay the commencement of the period of suspension or restriction. In deciding whether this is appropriate, the FSA will take into account all the circumstances of a case. Considerations that may be relevant in respect of an authorised person include:(1) the impact of the suspension or restriction on consumers;(2) any practical measures the authorised person needs to take before the period of suspension or restriction begins, for example, changes to its systems and
COLL 8.5.10RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager must:(a) ensure that at each valuation point there are at least as many units in issue of any class as there are units registered to unitholders of that class; and(b) not do, or omit anything that would, or might confer on itself a benefit or advantage at the expense of a unitholder or potential unitholder.(2) For the purposes of (1) the authorised fund manager may take into account sales and redemptions after the valuation point, provided it has
SUP 7.3.2GRP
The FSAmay seek to vary a firm's Part IV permission on its own initiative in certain situations including the following:(1) If the FSA determines that a firm's management, business or internal controls give rise to material risks that are not fully addressed by its rules, the FSAmay seek to vary the firm's Part IV permission and impose an additional requirement or limitation on the firm.(2) If a firm becomes or is to become involved with new products or selling practices which
CASS 5.2.7GRP
A firm may operate on the basis of an agency agreement as provided for by CASS 5.2.3 R for some of its clients and with protection provided by a client money trust in accordance with CASS 5.3 or CASS 5.4 for other clients. A firm may also operate on either basis for the same client but in relation to different transactions. A firm which does so should be satisfied that its administrative systems and controls are adequate and, in accordance with CASS 5.2.4 G, should ensure that
REC 6.6.2GRP
The following events are examples of events likely to affect an assessment of whether an overseas recognised body is continuing to satisfy the recognition requirements, or to have an effect on competition:(1) significant changes to any relevant law or regulation in its home territory, including laws or regulations:(a) governing exchanges or clearing houses;(b) designed to prevent insider dealing, market manipulation or other forms of market abuse or misconduct;(c) designed to
SYSC 20.2.1RRP
As part of its business planning and risk management obligations under SYSC, a firm must reverse stress test its business plan; that is, it must carry out stress tests and scenario analyses that test its business plan to failure. To that end, the firm must:(1) identify a range of adverse circumstances which would cause its business plan to become unviable and assess the likelihood that such events could crystallise; and(2) where those tests reveal a risk of business failure that
SUP 9.3.1GRP
Business and internal control risks vary from firm to firm, according to the nature and complexity of the business. The FSA's assessment of these risks is reflected in how its rules apply to different categories of firm as well as in the use of its other regulatory tools. One of the tools the FSA has available is to give a firm individual guidance on the application of the requirements or standards under the regulatory system in the firm's particular circumstances.
MCOB 13.3.3GRP
The requirement in MCOB 13.3.1 R(2) for a written policy and procedures is intended to ensure that a firm has addressed the need for internal systems to deal fairly with any customer in financial difficulties. MCOB 13.3.1 R(2) does not oblige a firm to provide customers with a copy of the written policy and procedures. Nor, however, does it prevent a firm from providing customers with either these documents or a more customer-orientated version.
DEPP 6.5A.2GRP
(1) The FSA will determine a figure that reflects the seriousness of the breach. In many cases, the amount of revenue generated by a firm from a particular product line or business area is indicative of the harm or potential harm that its breach may cause, and in such cases the FSA will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of the firm’s revenue from the relevant products or business areas. The FSA also believes that the amount of revenue generated by a firm from
COBS 4.10.1GRP
The rules in SYSC 3 and SYSC 4 require a firm that communicates with a client in relation to designated investment business, or communicates or approves a financial promotion, to put in place systems and controls or policies and procedures in order to comply with the rules in this chapter.
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
RCB 2.3.6GRP
The FSA will:(1) expect the issuer to demonstrate that it has in place appropriate systems, controls, procedures and policies, including in relation to risk management, underwriting, arrears and valuation; (2) expect the issuer to demonstrate that the cash-flows generated by the assets would be sufficient to meet the payments due in a timely manner including under conditions of economic stress and in the event of the failure of the issuer;(3) take account of any over collateralisation
REC 2.10.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body's measures are appropriate to reduce the extent to which its facilities can be used for a purpose connected with market abuse or financial crime, to facilitate their detection and to monitor their incidence, the FSA may have regard to:(1) whether the rules of the UK recognised body enable it to disclose any information to the FSA, or other appropriate bodies involved in the detection, prevention or pursuit of market abuse or financial
SUP 16.12.11RRP

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to firm type in the table below:

Description of data item11

11

Firms' prudential category and applicable data items(note 1)15

BIPRU firms (note 17)2

Firmsother thanBIPRU firms

730K

125K and UCITS investment firms

50K

IPRU(INV)2Chapter 3

IPRU(INV)2Chapter 5

IPRU(INV)2Chapter 9

IPRU(INV)2Chapter 13

UPRU

Annual report and accounts11

11

No standard format

No standard format (note 19)2

No standard format2

No standard format3

11

No standard format3

Annual report and accounts11 of the mixed-activity holding company (note 10)

11

No standard format

Solvency statement

No standard format (note 11)

No standard format (note 20)

No standard format (note 11)2

No standard format (note 11)5

Balance sheet

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA001 (note 2)

FSA029 (note 18)112

FSA0292

11

FSA0292

FSA029 (note 1511)2 or Section A RMAR (note 1511)3

1111

FSA0292

11

Income statement

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA002 (note 2)

FSA030 (note 18)2

11

FSA0302

11

FSA0302

FSA030 (note 1511)2 or Section B RMAR (note 1511)3

1111

FSA0302

11

Capital adequacy

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA003 (note 2)

FSA033 (note 18)2

11

FSA034 or FSA035 (note 14)2

11

FSA0312

FSA032 (note 15) 2 or Sections D1 and D2 RMAR (note 1511)3

1111

FSA0362

11

Credit risk

FSA004 (notes 2, 3)

FSA004 (notes 2, 3)

FSA004 (notes 2, 3)

Market risk

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

FSA005 (notes 2, 4)

Market risk - supplementary

FSA006 (note 5)

FSA006 (note 5)

FSA006 (note 5)

Operational risk

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

FSA007 (notes 2, 6, 7)

Large exposures

FSA008 (Notes 2, 6)15

FSA008 (Notes 2, 6)15

FSA008 (Notes 2, 6)15

UK integrated group large exposures

FSA018 (note 12)

FSA018 (note 12)

FSA018 (note 12)

Solo consolidation data

FSA016 (note 25)11

FSA016 (note 25)11

FSA016 (note 25)11

Pillar 2 questionnaire

FSA019 (note 8)

FSA019 (note 8)

FSA019 (note 8)

Non-EEA sub-group

FSA028 (note 9)

FSA028 (note 9)

FSA028 (note 9)

3Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR (note 21)

3

2Client money and client assets

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039 (note 18)

FSA039

FSA039

Section C RMAR (note 21) or 3FSA039

FSA039

2CFTC

FSA040

(note 24)11

FSA040

(note 24)11

FSA040

(note 24)11

FSA040

(note 24)11

FSA040

(note 24)11

FSA040

(note 24)11

FSA040

(note 24)11

FSA040

(note 24)113

6IRB portfolio risk

FSA045 (note 22)

FSA045 (note 22)

FSA045 (note 22)

6Securitisation: non-trading book15

FSA046 (note 23)

FSA046 (note 23)

FSA046 (note 23)

13Daily Flows

FSA047 (Notes 26, 29 and 31)

13Enhanced Mismatch Report

FSA048 (Notes 26, 29 and 31)

13Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities

FSA050 (Notes 27, 30 and 31)

13Funding Concentration

FSA051 (Notes 27, 30 and 31)

13Pricing data

FSA052 (Notes 27, 30 and 31)

13Retail and corporate funding

FSA053 (Notes 27, 30 and 31)

13Currency Analysis

FSA054 (Notes 27, 30 and 31)

13Systems and Controls Questionnaire

FSA055 (Note 28)

15Securitisation: trading book

FSA058 (Note 32)

FSA058 (Note 32)

FSA058 (Note 32)

Note 1

When submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25.

Note 2

Firms11 that are members of a UK consolidation group are also required to submit this report on a UK consolidation group basis.

1111

Note 3

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA004 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.11

The11threshold is exceeded where 11data element 77A in data item FSA003 is greater than £10 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant 11reporting date for the firm.

11111111

Note 4

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at anytime within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA005 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The11 threshold is exceeded where data element 93A in data item FSA003 is greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant 11reporting date for the firm11.

111111

Note 5

Only applicable to firms with a VaR model permission.11

1111

Note 6

This will not be applicable to BIPRU limited activity firms or BIPRU limited licence firms unless they have a waiver under BIPRU 6.1.2 G.

Note 7

This is only applicable to a firm that has adopted, in whole or in part,either the standardised approach, alternative standardised approach, or advanced measurement approach underBIPRU 611

11

Note 8

Only applicable to BIPRU investment firms5 that:

(a) are subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8, except those that are either included within the consolidated supervision of a group that includes a UK credit institution, or that have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or11

(b) have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver;or11

(c) are 11not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8.

A BIPRU investment firm5 under (a) must11complete the report on the basis of its UK consolidation group. A BIPRU investment firm5 under (b) or (c) must11complete the report on the basis of its solo position.

111111

Note 9

This will be applicable to firms that are members of a UK consolidation group4 on the reporting date.

11

Note 10

Only applicable to a firm whose ultimate parent is a mixed activity holding company.

Note 11

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or a partnership, when the report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 12

Members of a UK integrated group should only submit this data item at the UK integrated group level.

11

2Note 13

This does not apply to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm.

2Note 14

FSA034 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.

FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.2.3(2)R.

2Note 15

FSA029, FSA030 and FSA032 must be completed bya firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm. Section A or Section B RMAR and Sections D1 and D2 RMAR only apply to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is not an exempt CAD firm.11

11

2Note 16

[deleted]11

11

2Note 17

An exempt BIPRU commodity firm will, by virtue of the definition of BIPRU TP 15, be exempt from completing FSA003 (and thus FSA004, FSA005, FSA006 and FSA007) for the duration of the transitional provision. It is however required to submit all other data items applicable according to the firm's BIPRU classification including, for the avoidance of doubt, BIPRU TP 16.

2Note 18

Except if the firm is an adviser, local or traded options market maker (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60(4)R.

2Note 19

In the case of an adviser, local or traded options market maker (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60(4)R), it is only required from partnerships and bodies corporate, and then only if the report was audited as a result of a statutory provision other than under the Act.

2Note 20

Only required in the case of an adviser, local or traded options market maker (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60(4)R) that is a sole trader.

3Note 21

[deleted]11

11

6Note 22

Only applicable to firms that have an IRB permission.11

11

6Note 23

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of15securitisations. of non-trading book exposures.15

15

11Note 24

Only applicable to firms granted a Part 30 exemption order and operating an arrangement to cover forward profits on the London Metals Exchange.

11Note 25

Only applicable to a firm that has a solo consolidation waiver.

13Note 26

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases (if applicable).

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a DLG by default and is a UKlead regulated firm, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(3) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UKDLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(4) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

13Note 27

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases that are applicable.

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis unless it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UKDLG by modification. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UKDLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

13Note 28

If it is a non-ILAS BIPRU firm, it must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

13Note 29

(1) This item must be reported in the reporting currency.

(2) If any data element is in a currency or currencies other than the reporting currency, all currencies (including the reporting currency) must be combined into a figure in the reporting currency.

(3) In addition, all material currencies (which may include the reporting currency) must each be recorded separately (translated into the reporting currency). However if:

(a) the reporting frequency is (whether under a rule or under a waiver) quarterly or less than quarterly; or

(b) the only material currency is the reporting currency;

(3) does not apply.

(4) If there are more than three material currencies for this data item, (3) only applies to the three largest in amount. A firm must identify the largest in amount in accordance with the following procedure.

(a) For each currency, take the largest of the asset or liability figure as referred to in the definition of material currency.

(b) Take the three largest figures from the resulting list of amounts.

(5) The date as at which the calculations for the purposes of the definition of material currency are carried out is the last day of the reporting period in question.

(6) The reporting currency for this data item is whichever of the following currencies the firm chooses, namely USD (the United States Dollar), EUR (the euro), GBP (sterling), JPY (the Japanese Yen), CHF (the Swiss Franc), CAD (the Canadian Dollar) or SEK (the Swedish Krona).

13Note 30

Note 29 applies, except that paragraph (3) does not apply, meaning that material currencies must not be recorded separately.

13Note 31

Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements for the data item in question if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period. If the change is that the firm does not have to report a particular data item or does not have to report it at a particular reporting level, the firm must nevertheless report that item or at that reporting level for any reporting period that has already begun. This paragraph is subject to anything that the intra-group liquidity modification says to the contrary.15

15Note 32

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations of trading bookexposures.