Related provisions for DISP App 1.6.5

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MIPRU 4.4.10RRP
(1) 1If the reversion provider agrees under the terms of an instalment reversion plan to pay the reversion occupier for the qualifying interest in land over a period of time, then the provider must:(a) take out and maintain adequate insurance from an insurance undertaking authorised in the EEA or a person of equivalent status in:(i) a Zone A country; or(ii) the Channel Islands, Gibraltar, Bermuda or the Isle of Man; or(b) enter into a written agreement with a credit institution;to
MIPRU 4.4.11GRP
The additional requirement for reversion providers aims to protect the reversion occupier against the insolvency of the reversion provider where the reversion occupier has agreed to receive the price for the part of the qualifying interest in land sold in instalments rather than in a lump sum. The requirement does not arise, for example, in relation to reversions linked to annuities as the reversion occupier has no credit risk on the reversion provider. Also, the requirement does
SUP 12.5.2GRP
(1) Regulations 3(1) 8and (2) of the Appointed Representatives Regulations make it a requirement that the contract between the firm and the appointed representative (unless it prohibits the appointed representative from representing other counterparties) contains a provision enabling the firm to:488(a) impose such a prohibition; or(b) impose restrictions as to the other counterparties which the appointed representative may represent, or as to the types of investment in relation
SUP 12.5.5RRP
A firm must ensure that its written contract with each of its appointed representatives:4(1) complies with the requirements prescribed in regulation 3 of the Appointed Representatives Regulations (see SUP 12.5.2 G);4(2) requires the appointed representative to comply, and to ensure that any persons who provide services to the appointed representative under a contract of services or a contract for service comply, with the relevant requirements in or under the Act (including the
PERG 5.11.1GRP
This part of the guidance deals with:(1) exclusions which are disapplied where the regulated activity relates to contracts of insurance;(2) exclusions which are disapplied where a person carries on insurance mediation; and(3) the following exclusions applying to more than one regulated activity:(a) activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business (article 67 (Activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business));(b) activities
PERG 5.11.13AGRP
(1) 2There are two types of travel risks covered by PERG 5.11.13G (4)(b). The first type covers damage to, or loss of, baggage and other risks linked to the travel booked with the provider where that travel relates to attendance at an event organised or managed by that provider and the party seeking insurance is not an individual (acting in his private capacity) or a small business.(2) "Small business" means a sole trader, body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association
CASS 5.5.16RRP
(1) A firm may draw down commission from the client bank account if:(a) it has received the premium from the client (or from a third party premium finance provider on the client's behalf);2 and(b) this is consistent with the firm'sterms of business which it maintains with the relevant client and 2the insurance undertaking to whom the premium will become2 payable;and the firm may draw down commission before payment of the premium to the insurance undertaking, provided that the conditions
CASS 5.5.17GRP
(1) As soon as commission becomes due to the firm (in accordance with CASS 5.5.16 R (1)) it must be treated as a remittance which must be withdrawn in accordance with CASS 5.5.16 R (2). 2The procedure required by CASS 5.5.16 R will also 2apply where moneyis 2due and payable 2to the firm in respect of fees due from clients (whether to the firm or other professionals).(2) Firms are reminded that money received in accordance with CASS 5.2 must not, except where a firm and an insurance
DISP 2.1.5GRP
In this chapter, ancillary banking services include, for example, the provision and operation of cash machines, foreign currency exchange, safe deposit boxes and account aggregation services (services where details of accounts held with different financial service providers can be accessed by a single password).417417
PERG 6.6.7GRP
Under most commercial contracts with a customer, a provider will assume more than one obligation. Some of these may be insurance obligations, others may not. The FSA will apply the principles in PERG 6.5.4 G, in the way described in (1) to (3) to determine whether the contract is a contract of insurance.(1) If a provider undertakes an identifiable and distinct obligation that is, in substance an insurance obligation as described in PERG 6.5.4 G, then, other things being equal,
DTR 6.2.3GRP
An issuer or person that discloses regulated information may comply with DTR 6.2.2 R by using a RIS to disseminate the information in accordance with DTR 6.3.
SUP 17.2.4GRP
1The FSA will expect a firm which seeks to rely upon the waiver in SUP 17.2.3 R to take reasonable steps to verify that transaction reports will be made in accordance with the standards laid down in this chapter and in particular should ascertain and remain satisfied that:(1) the provider of the transaction reporting facility maintains an automated reporting system which the firm is able to access through the efficient inputting of transactions into the system;(2) the terms of
SUP 12.2.6GRP
A firm is referred to as a 'network' if it appoints five or more appointed representatives (not counting introducer appointed representatives)7 or if it appoints fewer7 than five appointed representatives (again, not counting introducer appointed representatives)7 which have, between them, twenty-six or more representatives. However, a network does not include:54(a) a product provider;4(b) a firm which markets the packaged products of a product provider in the same group as the
SYSC 4.4.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 4.4.5 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application).

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 4.4.3 R and SYSC 4.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3). If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firms may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of being allocated to the firm'schief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals will nevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 4.4.5 R, column 2.

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 4.4.5 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or (2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 4.4.5 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R). Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 4.4 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm'sUK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 4.4.5 R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R(2) and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8R restrict the application of SYSC 4.4.5 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 4.4.5R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 4.4.5R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm'sgroup under SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 4.4.5 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 4.4.5 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code5 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).

5

15

What about incoming electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.
PERG 8.32.6GRP
For example, in the FSA's view a publisher or broadcaster would be likely to be making arrangements within the meaning of article 25(2) and be unable to make use of the exclusion in article 27 if:(1) he enters into an agreement with a provider of investment services such as a broker or product provider for the purpose of carrying their financial promotion; and(2) as part of the arrangements, the publisher or broadcaster does one or more of the following:(a) brands the investment
MCOB 8.1.3RRP
4(1) This chapter applies to a firm4 in the course of carrying on an equity release activity:44(a) makes, or anticipates making, a personal recommendation about; or(b) gives, or anticipates giving, personalised information relating to;the customer:(c) entering into an equity release transaction4; or4(d) varying the terms of an equity release transaction4 entered into by the customer.44(2) In respect of arranging or advising on a home reversion plan for a customer who is acting
DTR 2.2.10GRP
The FSA is aware that many issuers provide unpublished information to third parties such as analysts, employees, credit rating agencies, finance providers and major shareholders, often in response to queries from such parties. The fact that information is unpublished does not in itself make it inside information. However, unpublished information which amounts to inside information is only permitted to be disclosed in accordance with the disclosure rules and an issuer must ensure
COLL 5.7.11GRP
An authorised fund manager carrying out due diligence for the purpose of the rules in this section should make enquiries or otherwise obtain information needed to enable him properly to consider:(1) whether the experience, expertise, qualifications and professional standing of the second scheme's investment manager is adequate for the type and complexity of the second scheme;(2) the adequacy of the regulatory, legal and accounting regimes applicable to the second scheme and its
COLL 1.1.1ARRP
1This sourcebook does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.
PRIN 3.1.1RRP
PRIN applies to every firm, except that:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm, the Principles apply only in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU4 instrument to the firm's Home State regulator;4(2) for an incoming EEA firm which is a BCD credit institution without a top-up permission, Principle 4 applies only in relation to the liquidity of a branch established in the United Kingdom;(3) for an incoming EEA firm which has