Related provisions for PERG 8.3.4
241 - 260 of 642 items.
1An applicant applying for admission to listing by way of a block listing must submit in final form, at least two business days before the FSA is to consider the application, a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List. An application in respect of multiple schemes must identify the schemes but need not set out separate block listing amounts for each scheme.1Note: The Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List form can be found on
(1) An applicant applying for admission to listing by way of a block listing must notify an RIS of the number and type of securities that are the subject of the block listing application and the circumstances of their issue.(2) The notification in paragraph (1) must be made by 9 a.m. on the day the FSA is to consider the application.
Every six months the applicant must notify a RIS of the details of the number of securities covered by the block listing which have been allotted in the previous six months, using the Block Listing Six Monthly Return.1Note: A copy of the Block Listing Six Monthly Return can be found on the UKLA section of the FSA website.
Under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions), the FSA has the power to give directions to a recognised body to take specified steps 1in order to secure its compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements. In the case of a UK RIE those steps may include granting the FSA access to the UK RIE's premises for the purposes of inspecting those premises or any documents
The FSA is likely to exercise its power under section 296 of the Act if it considers that:(1) there has been, or was likely to be, a failure to satisfy the recognition requirements or there has been a failure to comply with any other obligation in or under the Act or, in the case of a UK RIE, the MiFID implementing requirements1which has serious consequences; (2) compliance with the direction would ensure that the recognition requirements, or other obligation in or under the Act
Under section 298(7) of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure), the FSA need not follow the consultation procedure set out in the rest of section 298 (see REC 4.8), or may cut short that procedure, if it considers it essential to do so. The FSA is likely to consider it essential to cut short the procedure if, in the absence of immediate action, there would be:(1) a serious risk of substantial losses to investors, particularly retail clients1; or1(2) a serious threat to
(1) 1The FSAwill seek to deprive a firm of the financial benefit derived directly from the breach (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FSA will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit.(2) Where the success of a firm’s entire business model is dependent on breaching FSA rules or other requirements of the regulatory system and the breach is at the core of the firm’s regulated activities, the FSA will seek to deprive
(1) The FSA will determine a figure that reflects the seriousness of the breach. In many cases, the amount of revenue generated by a firm from a particular product line or business area is indicative of the harm or potential harm that its breach may cause, and in such cases the FSA will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of the firm’s revenue from the relevant products or business areas. The FSA also believes that the amount of revenue generated by a firm from
(1) The FSA may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the firm in bringing (or failing
(1) If the FSA considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the firm who committed the breach, or others, from committing further or similar breaches then the FSA may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FSA may do this include:(a) where the FSA considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the breach to meet its objective of credible deterrence;(b) where previous FSA action in respect of similar breaches has failed to improve
The FSA and the firm on whom a penalty is to be imposed may seek to agree the amount of any financial penalty and other terms. In recognition of the benefits of such agreements, DEPP 6.7 provides that the amount of the financial penalty which might otherwise have been payable will be reduced to reflect the stage at which the FSA and the firm concerned reached an agreement. The settlement discount does not apply to the disgorgement of any benefit calculated at Step 1.
In respect of banking services, the European Commission believes that "...to determine where the activity was carried on, the place of provision of what may be termed the 'characteristic performance' of the service i.e. the essential supply for which payment is due, must be determined" (Commission interpretative communication: Freedom to provide services and the interests of the general good in the Second Banking Directive (97/C 209/04)). In the FSA's view , this requires consideration
The FSA is of the opinion that UK firms that are credit institutions and MiFID investment firms2 should apply the 'characteristic performance' test (as referred to in SUP App 3.6.7 G) when considering whether prior notification is required for services business. Firms should note that other EEA States may take a different view. Some EEA States may apply a solicitation test. This is a test as to whether it is the consumer or the provider that initiates the business relationshi
The FSA considers that, in order to comply with Principle 3:Management and control (see PRIN 2.1.1 R), a firm should have appropriate procedures to monitor the nature of the services provided to its customers. Where a UK firm has non-resident customers but has not notified the EEA State in which the customers are resident that it wishes to exercise its freedom to provide services, the FSA would expect the firm's systems to include appropriate controls. Such controls would include
(1) If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in one or more EEA States excluding
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those EEA States or in a language customary in
the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [ Note: article
19.2 PD ](2) For the purpose of the scrutiny
by
The FSA will publish on its website, a list of prospectuses approved over the previous 12 months. The list will specify how a prospectus is made available and where it can be obtained, including, if applicable, a hyperlink to the prospectus published on the issuer's or regulated market's website. [ Note: article 14.4 PD ]
(1) This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an AUT is to be wound up or a sub-fund of an AUT is to be terminated. Under section 256 of the Act (Requests for revocation of authorisation order), the manager or trustee of an AUT may request the FSA to revoke the authorisation order in respect of that AUT. Section 257 of the Act (Directions) gives the FSA the power to make certain directions.(2) The termination of a sub-fund under this section will be subject
(1) Where COLL 7.4.3 R (2) (f) applies, the trustee must wind up the AUT or terminate the sub-fund in accordance with the approved scheme of arrangement.(2) In any other case falling within COLL 7.4.3 R:(a) once the AUT falls to be wound up or sub-fund terminated, the trustee must realise the scheme property;(b) after paying out or retaining adequate provision for all liabilities payable and for the costs of the winding up or termination, the trustee must distribute the proceeds
(1) For any annual or half-yearly accounting period which began after commencement of the winding up or termination, the trustee (after consulting the manager (if appropriate) and the FSA) may direct that COLL 4.5.13 R (Provision of short report) may be dispensed with, provided that it has taken reasonable care to determine that the report is not required in the interests of the unitholders.(2) Where (1) applies, a copy of the short and long report must be supplied free of charge
The Listing Principles are as follows:
Principle 1 |
A listed company must take reasonable steps to enable its directors to understand their responsibilities and obligations as directors. |
Principle 2 |
A listed company must take reasonable steps to establish and maintain adequate procedures, systems and controls to enable it to comply with its obligations. |
Principle 3 |
A listed company must act with integrity towards holders and potential holders of its listedequity shares.2 2 |
Principle 4 |
A listed company must communicate information to holders and potential holders of its listedequity shares2 in such a way as to avoid the creation or continuation of a false market in such listedequity shares.2 22 |
Principle 5 |
A listed company must ensure that it treats all holders of the same class of its listedequity shares2 that are in the same position equally in respect of the rights attaching to such listedequity shares.2 22 |
Principle 6 |
A listed company must deal with the FSA in an open and co-operative manner. |
Principle 2 is intended to ensure that listed companies have adequate procedures, systems and controls to enable them to comply with their obligations under the listing rules and disclosure rules and transparency rules. In particular, the FSA considers that listed companies should place particular emphasis on ensuring that they have adequate procedures, systems and controls in relation to:(1) identifying whether any obligations arise under LR 10 (Significant transactions) and
This chapter also outlines the FSA's powers to withdraw authorisation from a firm whose Part IV permission has been cancelled at the firm's request. It does not, however, cover the FSA's use of its own-initiative powers to vary or cancel a firm's Part IV permission (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements) and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)).22
The chapter also sets out the FSA'srules, and guidance on these rules, that apply to a firm before it appoints, when it appoints and when it has appointed an appointed representative. The main purpose of these rules is to place responsibility on a firm for seeking to ensure that: (1) its appointed representatives are fit and proper to deal with clients in its name; and (2) clients dealing with its appointed representatives are afforded the same level of protection as if they had
The FSA has produced a leaflet entitled "Becoming an appointed representative" which provides a comprehensive summary of some of the main features of the appointed representative regime. You may download a copy of this leaflet from our website at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/pubs/other/factsheet_appointed.pdf.
2This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FSA registered tied agent. It also sets out the FSA'srules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.
A parent undertaking which wishes to make use of the exemption in relation to issuers subject to this chapter whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market must without delay, notify the following to the FSA:1(1) a list of the names of those management companies, investment firms or other entities, indicating the competent authorities that supervise them, but with no reference to the issuers concerned; and(2) a statement that, in the case of each such management company
Where the parent undertaking intends to benefit from the exemptions only in relation to the financial instruments referred to in Article 13 of the TD, it shall (in relation to financial instruments giving an entitlement to acquire shares which are admitted to trading on a regulated market) notify to the FSA only the list referred to in paragraph (1) of DTR 5.4.4 R.[Note: article 10(3) of the TD implementing Directive]
A parent undertaking of a management company or of an investment firm must in relation to issuers subject to this chapter whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market be able to demonstrate to the FSA on request that:1(1) the organisational structures of the parent undertaking and the management company or investment firm are such that the voting rights are exercised independently of the parent undertaking;(2) the persons who decide how the voting rights are exercised
A parent undertaking of a third country undertaking must comply with the notification requirements in DTR 5.4.4 R (1) and DTR 5.4.5 R and in addition: (1) must make a statement that in respect of each management company or investment firm concerned, the parent undertaking complies with the conditions of independence set down in DTR 5.4.10 R; and (2) must1 be able to demonstrate to the FSA on request that the requirements of DTR 5.4.6 R are respected.[Note: article 23 of the TD
(1) A listed company must notify a RIS as soon as possible when a document has been forwarded to the FSA under LR 9.6.1 R or LR 9.6.2 R unless the full text of the document is provided to the RIS.(2) A notification made under paragraph (1) must set out where copies of the relevant document can be obtained.
A listed company which changes its name must, as soon as possible:(1) notify a RIS of the change, stating the date on which it has taken effect;(2) inform the FSA in writing of the change; and(3) where the listed company is incorporated in the United Kingdom, send the FSA a copy of the revised certificate of incorporation issued by the Registrar of Companies.
(1) Before an EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer1 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed under regulation 3 of the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.
An EEA firm that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification of the applicable provisions may wish to contact the FSA's Passport Notifications Unit (see SUP 13A.8.1G (2)).
(1) An issuer must forward to the FSA, for publication through the document viewing facility, two copies of any document required by LR 17.3 or LR 17.4 at the same time the document is issued.(2) An issuer must notify a RIS as soon as possible when a document has been forwarded to the FSA under paragraph (1) unless the full text of the document is provided to the RIS.(3) A notification made under paragraph (2) must set out where copies of the relevant document can be obtaine
(1) An issuer'ssecurities must be admitted to trading on a RIE's market for listed securities at all times.(2) An issuer must inform the FSA in writing without delay if it has:(a) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listed securities to trading; or(b) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listed securities; or(c) been informed by a RIE that the trading of any of its listed securities will be cancelled or suspended.
(1) If an issuer prepares both own and consolidated annual accounts it may publish either form provided that the unpublished accounts do not contain any significant additional information.1(2) If the annual accounts do not give a true and fair view of the assets and liabilities, financial position and profits or losses of the issuer or group, additional information must be provided to the satisfaction of the FSA.1(3) An issuer incorporated or established in a non-EEA State which
An issuer must ensure that any circular it issues to holders of its listed securities about proposed amendments to a trust deed includes:(1) an explanation of the effect of the proposed amendments; and(2) either the full terms of the proposed amendments, or a statement that they will be available for inspection:(a) from the date the circular is sent until the close of the relevant general meeting at a place in or near the City of London or such other place as the FSA may determine;
16TC Appendix 5G sets out:(1) the criteria which the FSA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and(2) the information the FSA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FSA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4E.
Behaviour
of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3 E includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading
a client about the risks of
an investment;(3) misleading
a client about the charges or
surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading
a client about the likely performance
of investment products by providing
inappropriate projections of
future investment returns;(5) misleading
a client by informing him that
products require only a single
Deliberately
failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed
by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FSA;of the fact that their understanding
of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding,
falls within APER 4.1.2 E.
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) given to a member of, or addressed for the attention of , the Authorisation Department; and(b) delivered to the FSA by one of the methods in (2).(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to the address in SUP 13A.3.9 G below; or(b) leaving the application at the address in SUP 13A.3.9 G below and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(c) hand delivery to a member of the Authorisation
Neither assisting in the administration nor assisting in the performance of a contract alone will fall within this activity. Generally, an activity will either amount to assisting in the administration or assisting in the performance but not both. Occasionally, however, an activity may amount to both assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. For example, where a person assists a claimant in filling in a claims form, in the FSA's view this amounts
Put another way, where an intermediary's assistance in filling in a claims form is material to whether performance takes place of the contractual obligation to notify claims, it is more likely to amount to assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. Conversely, in the FSA's view, a person who merely gives pointers about how to fill in the claims form or merely supplies information in support of a claim will not be assisting in the performance of
More generally, an example of an activity that, in the FSA's view, is likely to amount to assisting a policyholder in both the administration and the performance of a contract of insurance is notifying a claim under a policy and then providing evidence in support of the claim, or helping negotiate its settlement on the policyholder's behalf. Notifying an insurance undertaking of a claim assists the policyholder in discharging his contractual obligation to do so (assisting in the
Where a person receives funds on behalf of a policyholder in settlement of a claim, in the FSA's view, the act of receipt is likely to amount to assisting in the performance of a contract. By giving valid receipt, the person assists the insurance undertaking to discharge its contractual obligation to provide compensation to the policyholder. He may also be assisting the policyholder to discharge any obligations he may have under the contract to provide valid receipt of funds,
In assessing this threshold condition, factors which the FSA will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: (1) it is likely that the FSA will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system and to identify and assess the impact on the regulatory objectives in section 2 of the Act (The FSA's