Related provisions for LR 11.1.5A
141 - 160 of 636 items.
(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the FSA to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the Passport Notifications Unit.(2) An applicant for Part IV permission which is submitting a notice
Paragraph 12(1) of Part 2 of Schedule 1A to the Act enables the FSA to make rules requiring any authorised persons or payment service providers or class of authorised persons or class of payment service providers to pay to the FSA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way in order to meet a proportion of:(1) the expenses incurred by the FSA in establishing the CFEB, whenever these were incurred; and(2) the expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the
Examples of goods or services that relate to the provision of research that the FSA does not regard as meeting the requirements of the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) include price feeds or historical price data that have not been analysed or manipulated to reach meaningful conclusions.
Examples of goods or services that relate to the execution of trades or the provision of research that the FSA does not regard as meeting the requirements of either evidential provisions COBS 11.6.4 E or COBS 11.6.5 E include:(1) services relating to the valuation or performance measurement of portfolios;(2) computer hardware; (3) connectivity services such as electronic networks and dedicated telephone lines; (4) seminar fees;(5) subscriptions for publications;(6) travel, accommodation
The reference to research in the rule on use of dealing commission (COBS 11.6.3 R) is not confined to investment research as defined in the Glossary. The FSA's view is that research can include, for example, the goods or services encompassed by investment research, provided that they are directly relevant to and are used to assist in the management of investments on behalf of customers. In addition, any goods or services that relate to the provision of research that the FSA regards
In assessing the adequacy of prior and periodic disclosures made by an investment manager under this section, the FSA will have regard to the extent to which the investment manager adopts disclosure standards developed by industry associations such as the Investment Management Association, the National Association of Pension Funds and the London Investment Banking Association.
The FSA will not refund periodic fees if, after the start of the period to which they relate:(1) a fee payer ceases to have the status set out in column (1) of the table in FEES 4.2.11 R; or(2) a firm reduces its permission or payment services activities 9so that it then falls out of the fee-block previously applied to it;99(but see FEES 2.3 (Relieving Provisions) and FEES 4.3.13 R (Firms Applying to Cancel or Vary Permission Before Start of Period)).
A person need not pay a periodic fee on the date on which it is due under the relevant provision in FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) that date falls during a period during which circumstances of the sort set out in GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergencies) exist, and that person has reasonable grounds to believe that those circumstances impair its ability to pay the fee, in which case he must pay it on or before the fifth business day after the end of that period; or(2) unless FEES 4.3.6R (3), 9FEES 4.3.6R
Table of periodic fees
1 Fee payer |
2 Fee payable |
3 Due date |
4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee |
Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier) |
As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R |
(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R (2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7 (3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10 (Periodic fees for MTF operators). 77 |
Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations ;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities9 9 |
Any firm which reports transactions3 to the FSA using the FSA's Direct Reporting System or FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see SUP 17) 3 |
(1) For transaction charges, the first working day of each month (2) For licence fees and enrolment charges, by the date set out on the relevant invoice |
Not applicable |
|
Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FSA under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.) |
£1,000 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event |
|
Any manager of an authorised unit trust; |
In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4 |
Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme |
|
In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4 |
|||
Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme; |
In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4 |
The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme |
|
Not applicable |
|||
FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event |
Recognition order is made. The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1.1166 1166116611661166 |
|
FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2 |
(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July. (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event. |
Recognition order is made. The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.1166 1166116611661166 |
|
Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR), unless the conditions set out below apply.3 The first condition is that the listedissuer, or a related entity, has already paid a periodic fee in respect of the period concerned. The second condition is that the listedissuer is subject to listing rules as a result of a reverse takeover, or that the listedissuer is a newly formed entity, created as a result of a restructuring.3 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules 3 |
|
12,50010 per year for the period from 1 April to 31 March the following year (see Note)2 10 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Approval of sponsor |
|
All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.6 6 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules6 |
|
6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FSA in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10 10 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Not applicable |
Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2
A request by an issuer for the listing of its securities to be suspended or cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the issuer's name;(2) details of the securities to which it relates and the RIEs on which they are traded;(3) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(4) the date on which the issuer requests the suspension or cancellation to take effect;(5) for a suspension, the time the issuer wants the suspension to take effect;(6) if relevant,
Cancellations will only be specified to take effect when the market opens on a specified day. An issuer should therefore ensure that all accompanying information has been provided to the FSA well before the date on which the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect and at the very latest by 3 p.m. on the business day before it is to take effect. If the information is received after 3:00 p.m. on the day before the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect, it will normally
(1) If an issuer requests the FSA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities, it may withdraw its request at any time before the suspension or cancellation takes effect. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible, with an explanation of the reasons for the withdrawal.(2) Even if an issuer withdraws its request, the FSA may still suspend or cancel the listing of the securities if it considers it is necessary
If a decision maker is asked to decide whether to give a decision notice or second supervisory notice, it will:(1) review the material before it;(2) consider any representations made (whether written, oral or both) and any comments by FSA staff or others in respect of those representations;(3) decide whether to give the notice and the terms of any notice given.
If the FSA receives no response or representations within the period specified in a warning notice, the decision maker may regard as undisputed the allegations or matters in that notice and a decision notice will be given accordingly. A person who has received a decision notice and has not previously made any response or representations to the FSA, may nevertheless refer the FSA's decision to the Tribunal.
If the FSA receives no response or representations within the period specified in a first supervisory notice, the FSA will not give a second supervisory notice. The outcome depends on when the relevant action took or takes effect (as stated in the notice). If the action:(1) took effect immediately, or on a specified date which has already passed, it continues to have effect (subject to any decision on a referral to the Tribunal); or(2) was to take effect on a specified date which
Under section 388(3) of the Act, following the giving of a decision notice but before the FSA takes action to which the decision notice relates, the FSA may give the person concerned a further decision notice relating to different action concerning the same matter. Under section 388(4) of the Act, the FSA can only do this if the person receiving the further decision notice gives its consent. In these circumstances the following procedure will apply:(1) FSA staff will recommend
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 2
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be a fit and properpersonto perform the [ relevant functions ] of a [ UK RIE ]. |
(2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the [FSA] may (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the [UK RIE's] connection with any person. |
2(3) The persons who effectively direct the business and operations of the [UK RIE] must be of sufficiently good repute and sufficiently experienced to ensure the sound and prudent management and operation of the financial markets operated by it. |
2(4) The persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the [UK RIE], whether directly or indirectly must be suitable. |
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FSA may have regard to any relevant factor including, but not limited to:(1) the commitment shown by the UK recognised body'sgoverning body to satisfying the recognition requirements and to complying with other obligations in or under the Act;(2) its arrangements, policies and resources for fulfilling its obligations under the Act in relation to its activities as a UK recognised body;(3) the extent to
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FSA may have regard to its connections with:(1) any undertaking in the same group;(2) any owner or part-owner of the UK recognised body;(3) any person who has the right to appoint or remove members of the governing body or other key individuals;(4) any person who is able in practice to appoint or remove members of the governing body or other key individuals;(5) any person in accordance with whose instructions
In assessing whether its connection with any person could affect whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the reputation and standing of that other person, including his standing with any relevant UK or overseas regulator;(2) breaches of any law or regulation by that other person; (3) the roles of any of the UK recognised body's key individuals who have a position within organisations under the control or influence of that other person,
2In assessing whether the persons who effectively direct the business and operations of the UK RIE are of sufficiently good repute and sufficiently experienced to ensure the sound and prudent management and operation of the financial markets operated by 3it, the FSA may have regard to the repute and experience of the UK RIE'skey individuals.
(1) An issuer that has the listing of any of its securities suspended may request the FSA to have them restored.(2) The request should be made sufficiently in advance of the time and date the issuer wishes the securities to be restored.(3) Requests received for when the market opens should allow sufficient time for the FSA to deal with the request.(4) The request may be an oral request. The FSA may require documentary evidence that the events that lead to the suspension are no
(1) If an issuer has requested the FSA to restore the listing of any securities, it may withdraw its request at any time while the securities are still suspended. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible.(2) Even if a request to restore has been withdrawn, the FSA may restore the listing of securities if it believes the circumstances justify it.
(1) If an underlying instrument is restored, the securitised derivative'slisting will normally be restored.(2) For a securitised derivative relating to a basket of underlying instruments that has been suspended, the securitised derivative's listing may be restored by the FSA, irrespective of whether or not the underlying instrument has been restored, if:(a) the issuer of the securitised derivative confirms to the FSA that despite the relevant underlying instrument(s) suspension
A general rule (that is a rule made section 138 of the Act (General rule-making power)) is to be interpreted as:(1) applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of all regulated activities, except to the extent that a contrary intention appears; and(2) not applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities, unless and then only to the extent that a contrary intention appears.
The FSA may modify LR 2.2.4 R to allow partly paid securities to be listed if
it is satisfied that their transferability is not restricted and investors
have been provided with appropriate information to enable dealings in the securities to take place on an open and
proper basis. [Note: articles 46 and 54 CARD]
(1) This rule applies
if under the Act or under the
law of another EEA State:(a) a prospectus must
be approved and published for the securities;
or(b) the applicant is
permitted and elects to draw up a prospectus for
the securities.(2) To be listed:(a) a prospectus must
have been approved by the FSA and published in relation to the securities; or(b) if another EEA
State is the Home Member State for
the securities, the relevant
competent authority must have supplied the FSA with:(i)
Business and internal control risks vary from firm to firm, according to the nature and complexity of the business. The FSA's assessment of these risks is reflected in how its rules apply to different categories of firm as well as in the use of its other regulatory tools. One of the tools the FSA has available is to give a firm individual guidance on the application of the requirements or standards under the regulatory system in the firm's particular circumstances.
The FSA may give individual guidance to a firm on its own initiative if it considers it appropriate to do so. For example:(1) the FSA may consider that general guidance in the Handbook does not appropriately fit a firm's particular circumstances (which may be permanent or temporary) and therefore decide to give additional individual guidance to the firm;(2) some of the FSA's requirements are expressed in general terms; however, there may be times when the FSA will wish to respond
(1) Overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses which are considering whether to seek authorisation or recognition should first consider whether they will be carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Overseas investment exchangesand overseas clearing houses which do not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom need take no action.(2) Prospective applicants should discuss authorisation and recognition with the FSA before deciding whether
Applicants for authorised person status should refer to the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1. Applications for recognition as an overseas recognised body should be addressed to:The Financial Services Authority (Markets Division)25 The North ColonnadeCanary WharfLondon E14 5HS1
There is no standard application form for application for recognition as an overseas recognised body. An application should be made in accordance with any direction the FSA may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) or section 288 (Application by a clearing house) of the Act and should include:(1) the information, evidence and explanatory material necessary to demonstrate to the FSA that the recognition requirements (set out in REC 6.3) will be met;(2)
The FSA may require further information from the applicant and may need to have discussions with the appropriate authorities in the applicant's home territory. To allow sufficient time for applications to be processed and for the necessary contacts to be made with the appropriate home territory authorities, applications should be made not later than six months before the applicant wishes the recognition order to take effect. No guarantee can be given that a decision will be reached
The power to impose a suspension
or a restriction is a disciplinary measure which the FSA may use in addition to, or instead of, imposing a financial penalty
or issuing a public censure.
The principal purpose of imposing a suspension or a restriction is to promote
high standards of regulatory and/or market conduct by deterring persons who have committed breaches from
committing further breaches,
helping to deter other persons from
committing similar breaches,
and demonstrating
As the power
to impose a suspension or a restriction is a disciplinary measure, where the FSA considers it necessary to take action, for example, to protect consumers from an authorised
person, the FSA will seek to cancel or vary the authorised
person'spermissions.
If the FSA has
concerns with a person's fitness
to be approved, and considers it necessary to take action, the FSA will
seek to prohibit the approved person or
withdraw its approval.
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the FSA within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic responsibility
(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.2(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).2(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FSA'sinformation technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for
(1) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.4.3R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.2(2) Where SUP 15.4.3R (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.2
(1) Under section 41(2) of the Act (The threshold conditions), in giving or varying a Part IV permission or imposing or varying any requirement, the FSA must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part IV
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, section 45 of the Act (Variation etc. on the FSA's own initiative) states that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power. Use of the FSA'sown-initiative power is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)1.1(2) If, when exercising its
(1) The FSA attaches considerable importance to the timely submission by firms of reports. This is because the information that they contain is essential to the FSA's assessment of whether a firm is complying with the requirements and standards of the regulatory system and to the FSA's understanding of that firm's business.(2) DEPP 6.6.1 G to DEPP 6.6.5 G set out the FSA's policy in relation to financial penalties for late submission of reports and is in addition to the FSA's
In addition to the factors considered in Step 2 for cases against firms (DEPP 6.5A) and cases against individuals (DEPP 6.5B),1 the following considerations are relevant.1(1) In general, the FSA's approach to disciplinary action arising from the late submission of a report will depend upon the length of time after the due date that the report in question is submitted.(2) If the person concerned is an individual, it is open to him to make representations to the FSA as to why he
In applying the guidance in this section, the FSA may treat a report which is materially incomplete or inaccurate as not received until it has been submitted in a form which is materially complete and accurate. For the purposes of the guidance, the FSA may also treat a report as not received where the method by which it is submitted to the FSA does not comply with the prescribed method of submission.
Introducers can check whether a person is an authorised person or an appointed representative by visiting the FSA's register at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/register/.If an authorised person has permission to carry on a regulated activity (which can be checked on the FSA's register) it is reasonable, in the FSA's view, to conclude that the authorised person carries on that activity (but not a controlled activity which is not a regulated activity). The FSA would normally expect introducers
In the FSA's view, money payable to an introducer on his own account includes money legitimately due to him for services rendered to the borrower, whether in connection with the introduction or otherwise. It also includes sums payable in connection with transfer of property to an introducer (for example, a housebuilder) by a borrower. For example, article 28B allows a housebuilder to receive the purchase price on a property that he sells to a borrower, whom he previously introduced
In the FSA's view, the provision of details of fees or commission referred to in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(ii) does not require an introducer to provide an actual sum to the borrower, where it is not possible to calculate the full amount due prior to the introduction. This may arise in cases where the fee or commission is a percentage of the eventual loan taken out and the amount of the required loan is not known at the time of the introduction. In these cases, it would be sufficient
In the FSA's view, the information condition in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(iii) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees. This and other relevant information may, where appropriate, be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower. The FSA would
(1) Neither an incoming EEA firm nor an incoming Treaty firm is authorised by the FSA when acting as such.(2) It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FSA to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.(3) As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading
The FSA will consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction
where it believes that such action will be a more effective and persuasive
deterrent than the imposition of a financial penalty alone. This is likely
to be the case where the FSA considers that direct and visible action in relation to a particular breach is necessary. Examples of circumstances
where the FSA may
consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction include:(1) where the FSA (or
The FSA expects usually to suspend or restrict a person from
carrying out activities directly linked to the breach.
However, in certain circumstances the FSA may also suspend or restrict a person from
carrying out activities that are not directly linked to the breach,
for example, where an authorised person's relevant
business area no longer exists or has been restructured.