Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1
321 - 340 of 408 items.
The Act does not specify a time limit for processing the application but the FSA intends to deal with an application as quickly as possible. The more complete and relevant the information provided by an applicant, the more quickly a decision can be expected. But on occasion it may be necessary to allow time in which the FSA can monitor the content of the service. This might happen where, for example, a service is in a form that makes record keeping difficult (such as a large website
Where an incoming EEA firm is exercising an EEA right, other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, and has established a branch in the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of that branch. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the relevant requirements in the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm'spermission given under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated as varied accordingly. All references to regulations
Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)
Category of firm |
Applicable sections |
|
(1) |
A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society or a non-directive firm43 4 |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
(1A) |
(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9 (b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3, RandSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
|
(2) |
||
(2A) 3 |
4 | all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, 4andSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
(3) |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, 4, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, 4, SUP 11.73 |
|
Note |
In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the FSA under Part XII of the Act (Notices of acquisitions of control4 over UK authorised persons4) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/7744). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21 444 |
|
(1) A firm must make an adequate record of any financial promotion it communicates or approves, other than a financial promotion made in the course of a personal visit, telephone conversation or other interactive dialogue.(2) For a telemarketing campaign, a firm must make an adequate record of copies of any scripts used.(3) A firm must retain the record in relation to a financial promotion relating to:(a) a pension transfer, pension opt-out or FSAVC, indefinitely;(b) a life policy,
A notice of intention3 may include activities within the scope of the relevant Single Market Directive which are not regulated activities (paragraphs 19(3) and 20(2) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act), although in the case of a MiFID investment firm a notice of intention may only include ancillary services which are to be carried on with one or more investment services and activities (paragraphs 19(5B) and 20(2A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act)3. Regulation 19 of the
(1) An approved person will only be in breach of
a Statement of Principle where
he is personally culpable. Personal culpability arises where an approved person's conduct was deliberate or
where the approved person's standard
of conduct was below that which would be reasonable in all the circumstances
(see DEPP 6.2.4 G (Action against
approved persons under section 66 of the Act2)).2(2) For
the avoidance of doubt, the Statements of
Principle do not extend the duties of approved
persons
Afirm (with the exception of a sole trader who does not employ any person who is required to be approved under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements)),2 when allocating functions internally, must ensure that senior personnel and, where appropriate, the supervisory function, are responsible for ensuring that the firm complies with its obligations under the regulatory system1. In particular, senior personnel and, where appropriate, the supervisory function
Some exemptions are based on the communicator believing on reasonable grounds that the recipient meets certain conditions. For example, articles 19(1)(a), 44, 47 and 49. What are reasonable grounds for these purposes will be a matter for the courts to decide. In the FSA's view, it would be reasonable for a communicator to rely on a statement made by a potential recipient that he satisfies relevant conditions. This is provided that there is no reason to doubt the accuracy of the
Paragraph 17(4) of Schedule 1 and section 99(5) to the Act permit the FSA to recover fees (including fees relating to payment services and, where relevant, FOS levies), and section 213(6) permits the FSCS to recover shares of the FSCS levy payable, as a debt owed to the FSA and FSCS respectively, and the FSA and FSCS, as relevant, will consider taking action for recovery (including interest) through the civil courts. Also, the FOS Ltd (in respect of case fees) may take steps to
(1) In determining whether a UK recognised body's procedures for consulting members and other users of its facilities are appropriate, the FSA may have regard to the range of persons to be consulted by the UK recognised body under those procedures. (2) In the FSA's view, consultation with a smaller range of persons may be appropriate where limited, technical changes to a UK recognised body's rules are proposed.(3) In the FSA's view, a UK recognised body's procedures may include
Under section 388(3) of the Act, following the giving of a decision notice but before the FSA takes action to which the decision notice relates, the FSA may give the person concerned a further decision notice relating to different action concerning the same matter. Under section 388(4) of the Act, the FSA can only do this if the person receiving the further decision notice gives its consent. In these circumstances the following procedure will apply:(1) FSA staff will recommend
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FSA may have regard to any relevant factor including, but not limited to:(1) the commitment shown by the UK recognised body'sgoverning body to satisfying the recognition requirements and to complying with other obligations in or under the Act;(2) its arrangements, policies and resources for fulfilling its obligations under the Act in relation to its activities as a UK recognised body;(3) the extent to