Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4

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REC 6.1.1GRP
The Act prohibits any person from carrying on, or purporting to carry on, regulated activities in the United Kingdom unless that person is an authorised person or an exempt person. If an overseas investment exchange or overseas clearing house wishes to undertake regulated activities in the United Kingdom, it will need to:(1) obtain a Part IV permission from the FSA; (2) (in the case of an EEA firm or a Treaty firm) qualify for authorisation under Schedule 3 (EEA Passport Rights)
REC 6.1.2GRP
Having the status of an overseas recognised body facilitates the participation of overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses in UKmarkets. In comparison with authorisation, it reduces the involvement which UK authorities need to have in the day-to-day affairs of an overseas recognised body because they are able to rely substantially on the supervisory and regulatory arrangements in the country where the applicant's head office is situated.
SUP 13.10.1GRP
UK firms are reminded that conduct of business rules, and other rules made for the general good, may apply to business carried on in the Host State by a UK firm. These are known in the Act as the applicable provisions (paragraph 19(13) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act).
SUP 13.10.3GRP
These Host State provisions often have requirements about the soliciting of business, for example, advertising and cold-calling rules. A UK firm should ensure it is familiar with, and acts in compliance with, the relevant requirements of its Host State regulator.
REC 3.9.1GRP
The purpose of REC 3.9.2 R is to enable the FSA to obtain information on changes to standard tariffs for matters such as membership and trading and of any scheme introduced by the UK recognised body for rebating or waiving fees or charges. A UK recognised body is not required to inform the FSA of fees or charges for which the UK recognised body does not charge according to a standard tariff.
REC 3.9.2RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FSA a summary of:(1) any proposal to change the fees or charges levied on its members (or any group or class of them), at the same time as the proposal is communicated to those members; and(2) any such change, no later than the date when it is published or notified to those members.
DTR 6.4.1RRP
In respect of transferable securities which are admitted to trading on a regulated market, this section applies to: (1) an issuer whose Home State is the United Kingdom in accordance with article 2.1(i)(i) of the TD; and(2) an issuer who chooses the United Kingdom as its Home State in accordance with article 2.1(i)(ii) of the TD.
DTR 6.4.2RRP
An issuer that chooses the United Kingdom as its Home State, pursuant to article 2.1(i)(ii), must disclose that choice in accordance with DTR 6.3. [Note: article 2 of the TD implementing Directive]
REC 6A.1.1GRP
1Under section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements in the United Kingdom to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home State regulator has given the FSA notice of the operator's intention.
REC 6A.1.3GRP
An EEA market operator has exempt person status as respects any regulated activity which is carried on as a part of its business of operating a regulated market or multilateral trading facility if the operator made arrangements in the United Kingdom on or before 31 October 2007 to facilitate access to, or use of, that regulated market or multilateral trading facility.
REC 3.20.1RRP
Where a UK recognised body has taken any disciplinary action against any member or any employee of a member, in respect of a breach of a rule relating to the carrying on by the UK recognised body of any of its regulatory functions, that body must immediately notify the FSA of that event, and give:(1) the name of the person concerned;(2) details of the disciplinary action taken by the UK recognised body; and(3) the UK recognised body's reasons for taking that disciplinary acti
REC 3.20.2RRP
Where an appeal is lodged against any disciplinary action referred to in REC 3.20.1 R, the UK recognised body must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and:(1) the name of the appellant and the grounds on which the appeal is based, immediately; and(2) the outcome of the appeal, when known.
REC 4.3.2GRP
For each UK recognised body, the FSA will conduct a periodic risk assessment. This assessment will take into account relevant considerations including the special position of recognised bodies under the Act, the nature of the UK recognised body's members, the position of other users of its facilities and the business environment more generally.
REC 4.3.3GRP
The risk assessment will guide the FSA's supervisory focus. It is important, therefore, that there is good dialogue between the FSA and the recognised body. The FSA expects to review its risk assessment with the staff of the UK recognised body to ensure factual accuracy and a shared understanding of the key issues, and may discuss the results of the risk assessment with key individuals of the UK recognised body. If appropriate, the FSA may send a detailed letter to the body's
LR App 2.1.2GRP

[deleted]

REC 3.19.1RRP
Where a UK recognised body becomes aware that a person has been appointed by any regulatory body (other than the FSA or a UK recognised body) to investigate:(1) any business transacted by means of its facilities, if it is an RIE; or(2) any aspect of the clearing services which it provides;it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event.
REC 3.19.2GRP
A UK recognised body need not give the FSA notice of:(1) routine inspections or visits undertaken in the course of regular monitoring, complaints handling or as part of a series of 'theme visits'; or(2) routine requests for information; or(3) investigations into the conduct of members of the UK recognised body or of other users of its facilities where the use of its facilities is a small or incidental part of the subject matter of the investigation.
REC 3.12.1RRP
If any civil or criminal legal proceedings are instituted against a UK recognised body, it must, unless REC 3.12.2 R applies, immediately give notice of that event and give the following information to the FSA:(1) in the case of civil proceedings, the name of the claimant, particulars of the claim, the amount of damages and any other remedy sought by the claimant, and particulars of any allegation that any act or omission of that body was in bad faith; and(2) in the case of criminal
REC 3.12.2RRP
A UK recognised body is not required to give notice of civil legal proceedings or information about them to the FSA under REC 3.12.1 R, where:(1) the amount of damages claimed would not significantly affect that UK recognised body's financial resources, if the claim were successful;(2) the claim would not have a significant adverse effect on the reputation and standing of that body, if that claim were successful; and (3) the claim does not relate to that body's regulatory fun
SUP 11.6.2RRP
After submitting a notificationunder SUP 11.4.2 R orSUP 11.4.2AR (1) and R (2) and until the change in control occurs (or is no longer to take place), SUP 15.6.4 R and SUP 15.6.5 R apply to a UK domestic firm in relation to any information its controller or proposed controller provided to the FSA under SUP 11.5.1 R or SUP 11.3.7 D.1
SUP 11.6.3RRP
During the period in SUP 11.6.2 R, a UK domestic firm must take reasonable steps to keep itself informed about the circumstances of the controller or the proposed controller to which the notification related.
REC 2.11.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(g)

2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that-

where the [UK RIE's]facilitiesinclude making provision for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of thosefacilities, satisfactory arrangements are made for that purpose.
REC 2.11.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FSA may have regard to: (1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
REC 2.11.4GRP
Where a UK recognised body arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the recognition requirement in Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations (see REC 2.2).
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.
LR 14.3.11GRP
An overseas company, whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom, should consider its obligations under the disclosure rules and transparency rules.
LR 14.3.15RRP
1(1) This rule applies to an overseas company for whom the United Kingdom is a host Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive.11(2) An overseas company must appoint a registrar in the United Kingdom if:11(a) there are 200 or more holders resident in the United Kingdom; or1(b) 10% of more of the equity securities are held by persons resident in the United Kingdom.1
LR 14.3.15AGRP
1An overseas company for whom the United Kingdom is the home Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive should see LR 14.3.22 G and LR 14.3.23 R.
PERG 2.5.1GRP
In addition to the requirements as to the business test and the link to the United Kingdom, two other essential elements must be present before a person needs authorisation under the Act. The first is that the investments must come within the scope of the system of regulation under the Act (see PERG 2.6). The second is that the activities, carried on in relation to those specified investments, are regulated under the Act (see PERG 2.7). Both investments and activities are defined
PERG 2.5.4ARP
2The UK has exercised the optional exemption in article 3 of MiFID. Further information about this exemption is contained in Q48 to 53 in PERG 13.5. It is a requirement of article 3 MiFID that the activities of firms relying on the exemption are "regulated at national level". The investment services to which article 3 apply (namely reception and transmission of orders and investment advice in relation to either transferable securities or units in collective investment undertakings)
REC 2.12.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(c)

4Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that -

(c)

appropriate arrangements are made forrelevant informationto be made available (whether by the [UK RIE] or, where appropriate, byissuersof the [specified investments]) topersonsengaged indealingin [specified investments] on the [UK RIE];
REC 2.12.2AUKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7A

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must make clear and transparent rules concerning the admission of financial instruments to trading on any financial market operated by it.

(2)

The rules must ensure that all financial instruments admitted to trading on any regulated market operated by the [UK RIE] are capable of being traded in a fair, orderly and efficient manner (in accordance with Chapter V of the [MiFID Regulation], where applicable).

(3)

The rules must ensure that -

(a)

all transferable securities admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by the [UK RIE] are freely negotiable (in accordance with Chapter V of the [MiFID Regulation], where applicable); and

(b)

all contracts for derivatives admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by the [UK RIE] are designed so as to allow for their orderly pricing as well as for the existence of effective settlement conditions.

(4)

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable the users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgments, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instrument traded.

(5)

The [UK RIE] must maintain effective arrangements to verify that issuers of transferable securities admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by it comply with the disclosure obligations.

(6)

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to assist users of a regulated market operated by it to obtain access to information made public under the disclosure obligations.

(7)

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements regularly to review whether the financial instruments admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by it comply with the admission requirements for those instruments.

(8)

The rules must provide that where a [UK RIE], without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a regulated market operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on another regulated market, the [UK RIE] -

(a)

must inform the issuer of that security as soon as is reasonably practicable; and

(b)

may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(9)

The rules must provide that where a [UK RIE], without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, it may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

...

(11)

This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4.
PERG 9.1.3GRP
This guidance is issued under section 157of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
PERG 9.1.4GRP
The only kind of body corporate of an open-ended kind that may currently be formed under the law of the United Kingdom is one that is authorised by the FSA. A person intending to form an open-ended body corporate that has its head office in Great Britain should refer to the Open-ended Investment Companies Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1228). Bodies corporate formed under these Regulations are referred to in the Handbook as investment companies with variable capital (or ' ICVCs ').
SUP 12.5.2AGRP
8If a UK MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm appoints an appointed representative that is a tied agent, regulation 3(6) of the Appointed Representative Regulations requires the contract between the firm and the appointed representative to contain a provision that the representative is only permitted to provide the services and carry on the activities referred to in Article 4(1)(25) of MiFID while he is entered on the applicable Register.
SUP 12.5.8RRP
8If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent, SUP 12.5.6A R (1A) applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.[Note: articles 4(1)(25) and 23(1) of MiFID]
SUP 12.5.9GRP
8Under section 39A(6)(a) of the Act a UK MiFID investment firm must ensure that the contract it uses to appoint an FSA registered tied agent complies with the requirements that would apply under the Appointed Representative Regulations if it were appointing an appointed representative.
ICOBS 8.2.1RRP
(1) This section applies to a motor vehicle liability insurer.(2) The rules in this section relating to the appointment of claims representatives apply in relation to claims by injured parties resulting from accidents occurring in an EEA State other than the injured party'sEEA State of residence which are caused by the use of vehicles insured through an establishment in, and normally based in, an EEA State other than the injured party'sEEA State of residence.(3) The rules in this