Related provisions for SUP App 2.7.2

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SUP 18.2.13GRP
The initial information on the schemeprovided to the FSA under SUP 18.2.12 G should include its broad outline and its purpose.The FSA will indicate to the promoters how closely it wishes to monitor the progress of the scheme, including the extent to which it wishes to see draft documentation.
SUP 18.2.25GRP
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the FSA to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency margin requirements (if any) after the
COBS 20.2.5RRP
(1) Unless a firm cannot reasonably compare a maturity payment with a calculated asset share, it must:(a) set a target range for the maturity payments that it will make on:(i) all of its with-profits policies; or(ii) each group of its with-profits policies;(b) ensure that each target range:(i) is expressed as a percentage of unsmoothed asset share; and(ii) includes 100% of unsmoothed asset share; and(c) manage its with-profits business, and the business of each with-profit fund,
SUP 4.1.3RRP

Applicable sections

(1)

Category of firm

(2) Applicable sections

(1)

A long-term insurer, other than:

SUP 4.1, SUP 4.2, SUP 4.3 and SUP 4.5

(a)

a registered friendly society which is a non-directive friendly society;

(b)

an incorporated friendly society that is a flat rate benefits business friendly society; and

(c)

an incoming EEA firm

(2)

A friendly society, other than a friendly society within (1).

SUP 4.1, SUP 4.2, SUP 4.4 and SUP 4.51

(3) 2

A Lloyd's managing agent, in respect of each syndicate it manages2

SUP 4.1, SUP 4.2, SUP 4.5, SUP 4.62

(4) 2

The Society of Lloyd's2

SUP 4.1, SUP 4.2, SUP 4.5, SUP 4.62
SUP 8.4.1GRP
If the FSA gives a firm a waiver, then the relevant rule no longer applies to the firm. But:(1) if a waiver directs that a rule is to apply to a firm with modifications, then contravention of the modified rule could lead to FSA enforcement action and (if applicable) a right of action under section 150 of the Act (Actions for damages); and(2) if a waiver is given subject to a condition, it will not apply to activities conducted in breach of the condition, and those activities,
SUP 8.4.2GRP
Substantive changes to the rules (this would not include simple editorial changes) in the Handbook may affect existing waivers, changing their practical effect and creating a need for a change to the original waiver. The FSA will consult on proposed rule changes. A firm should note proposed rule changes and discuss the impact on a waiver with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.
SUP 8.5.1RRP
A firm which has applied for or has been granted a waiver must notify the FSA immediately if it becomes aware of any matter which could affect the continuing relevance or appropriateness of the application or the waiver.
SUP 8.5.2GRP
Firms are also referred to SUP 15.6 (Inaccurate, false or misleading information). This requires, in SUP 15.6.4 R, a firm to notify the FSA if false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate information has been provided. This would apply in relation to information provided in an application for a waiver.
SUP 8.7.1GRP
Once the FSA has given a waiver, it may vary it with the firm's consent, or on the firm's application. If a firm wishes the FSA to vary a waiver, it should follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.3 D, giving reasons for the application. In a case where a waiver has been given to a number of firms (see SUP 8.3.10 G), if the FSAwishes to vary such waivers with the consent of those firms, it will follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.10 G.
SUP 8.7.2GRP
If the waiver that has been varied has previously been published, the FSA will publish the variation unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so, having regard to any representation made by the firm.
COBS 21.2.8RRP
A firm must notify the FSA in writing as soon as it becomes aware of any failure to meet the requirements of this section.
SUP 4.2.1GRP
Section 340 of the Act gives the FSA power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. Section 340 further empowers the FSA to make rules governing the manner, timing and notification to the FSA of such an appointment and, where an appointment is not made, for the FSA to make an appointment on the firm's behalf. The FSA's rule-making powers under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3
SUP 4.2.3GRP
The functions3 described by SUP 4.2.2 G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are3 required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons3. The principal duty of an actuary appointed to perform these functions3 is to advise the firm (see SUP 4.3.13 R to SUP 4.3.18 G3 for the rights and duties of such an actuary3).333333
SUP 4.2.6GRP
3In making appointments under this chapter and in allocating duties to actuaries, firms are reminded of their obligation under SYSC 2.1.1 R to maintain a clear and appropriate apportionment of significant responsibilities so that it is clear who has which of those responsibilities and that the business and affairs of the firm can be adequately monitored and controlled by the directors, relevant senior managers and governing body of the firm.
FEES 3.2.1RRP
A person in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FSA a fee for each application or request for vetting or admission approval made, or notification or notice of exercise of a Treaty right given, as is applicable to it, as set out or calculated in accordance with the provisions referred to in column (2) of that table:(1) in full and without deduction; and(2) on or before the date given in column (3) of that
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body under section 287 or section 288 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable(3) In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

11

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A significanttransaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a primary listing under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction or a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document

; or (iii) the issuer is proposing a Depositary Receipt issue intended to raise more than 5billion.

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.5

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.
COND 2.2.2GRP
Threshold condition 2(1) and (2) (Location of offices), implement the requirements of article 6 of the Post BCCI Directive and article 5(4) of MiFID3 and threshold condition 2(3) and (4) implements article 2.9 of the Insurance Mediation Directive, although the Act extends threshold condition 2 to firms which are outside the scope of the Single Market Directives and the UCITS Directive.1
SYSC 12.1.9GRP
For the purposes of SYSC 12.1.8 R, the question of whether the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms are adequate, sound and appropriate should be judged in the light of the nature, scale and complexity of the group's business.
SYSC 12.1.11RRP
Where this section applies with respect to a financial conglomerate, the risk management processes referred to in SYSC 12.1.8R (2) must include:(1) sound governance and management processes, which must include the approval and periodic review by the appropriate managing bodies within the financial conglomerate of the strategies and policies of the financial conglomerate in respect of all the risks assumed by the financial conglomerate, such review and approval being carried out
SYSC 12.1.12RRP
Where this section applies with respect to a financial conglomerate, the internal control mechanisms referred to in SYSC 12.1.8R (2) must include:(1) mechanisms that are adequate to identify and measure all material risks incurred by members of the financial conglomerate and appropriately relate capital in the financial conglomerate to risks; and(2) sound reporting and accounting procedures for the purpose of identifying, measuring, monitoring and controlling intra-group transactions
SYSC 3.2.10GRP
(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to have a separate risk assessment function responsible for assessing the risks that the firm faces and advising the governing body and senior managers on them.(2) The organisation and responsibilities of a risk assessment function should be documented. The function should be adequately resourced and staffed by an appropriate number of competent staff who are sufficiently independent
SYSC 3.2.14GRP
(1) SYSC 3.2.13 G includes assessing an individual's honesty, and competence. This assessment should normally be made at the point of recruitment. An individual's honesty need not normally be revisited unless something happens to make a fresh look appropriate.(2) Any assessment of an individual's suitability should take into account the level of responsibility that the individual will assume within the firm. The nature of this assessment will generally differ depending upon whether
SYSC 3.2.16GRP
9(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to delegate much of the task of monitoring the appropriateness and effectiveness of its systems and controls to an internal audit function. An internal audit function should have clear responsibilities and reporting lines to an audit committee or appropriate senior manager, be adequately resourced and staffed by competent individuals, be independent of the day-to-day activities
SYSC 3.2.19GRP
A firm should have in place appropriate arrangements, having regard to the nature, scale and complexity of its business, to ensure that it can continue to function and meet its regulatory obligations in the event of an unforeseen interruption. These arrangements should be regularly updated and tested to ensure their effectiveness.
GEN 4.3.1RRP
A firm must take reasonable care to ensure that every letter (or electronic equivalent) which it or its employees send to a retail client4, with a view to or in connection with the firm carrying on a regulated activity, includes the disclosure in GEN 4 Annex 1 R.14
APER 4.1.3ERP
Deliberately misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission: (1) a client; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FSA;falls within APER 4.1.2 E.
APER 4.1.4ERP
Behaviour of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3 E includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading a client about the risks of an investment;(3) misleading a client about the charges or surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading a client about the likely performance of investment products by providing inappropriate projections of future investment returns;(5) misleading a client by informing him that products require only a single
APER 4.1.6ERP
Deliberately failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FSA;of the fact that their understanding of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding, falls within APER 4.1.2 E.
INSPRU 1.5.18RRP
A firm carrying on long-term insurance business must identify the assets relating to its long-term insurance business which it is required to hold by virtue of :33(1) in the case of a pure reinsurer:(a) INSPRU 1.1.20 R or INSPRU 1.1.21 R; and (b) INSPRU 3.1.61A R; and 3(2) in any other case:3(a) INSPRU 1.1.20 R or INSPRU 1.1.21 R; and3(b) INSPRU 3.1.57 R and INSPRU 3.1.58 R.3
INSPRU 1.5.19GRP
3(1) INSPRU 1.1.16 R requires a firm to establish adequate technical provisions for its long-term insurance contracts. INSPRU 1.1.20 R requires a firm which is not a composite firm to hold admissible assets of a value at least equal to the amount of the technical provisions and its other long-term insurance liabilities. INSPRU 1.1.21 R ensures that a composite firm identifies separate admissible assets with a value at least equal to the technical provisions for long-term insurance
INSPRU 1.5.28GRP
As a result of INSPRU 1.5.27R (2), an actuarial investigation undertaken to determine an established surplus remains in-date for three months from the date as at which the determination of the surplus was made. However, even where the investigation is still in-date, the firm should not make the transfer unless there is sufficient surplus at the time of the transfer to allow it to be made without breach of INSPRU 1.1.20 R or INSPRU 1.1.21 R.
INSPRU 1.5.33RRP
If the FSA imposes a financial penalty on a long-term insurer, the firm must not pay that financial penalty from a long-term insurance fund.
GENPRU 2.2.213RRP
An item falls into this provision for the purpose of GENPRU 2.2.212 R if it is:(1) an ownership share; or(2) subordinated debt or another item of capital that falls into Article 16(3) of the First Non-Life Directive or, as applicable, Article 27(3) of the Consolidated Life Directive.
GENPRU 2.2.214RRP
The amount to be deducted with respect to each material insurance holding is the higher of:(1) the book value of the material insurance holding; and(2) the solo capital resources requirement for the insurance undertaking or insurance holding company in question calculated in accordance with Part 3 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 (Method 3 of the capital adequacy calculations for financial conglomerates).
SUP 6.4.6GRP
(1) In addition to applying for cancellation of Part IV permission in accordance with SUP 6.4.5 D, a firm may discuss prospective cancellations with its usual supervisory contact at the FSA.4 Alternatively a firm can contact the Firms Contact Centre on 0845 606 9966.4(2) To contact the Cancellations Team: Cancellations4 Team:4(a) write to: Cancellations Team, The Financial ServicesAuthority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London, E14 5HS; or(b) email cancellation.team@fsa.gov.uk(3)
SUP 6.4.18GRP
A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part IV permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the FSA of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions. These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).
SUP 6.4.25GRP
Consequently, the FSA considers that it will have good reason not to grant a firm's application for cancellation of permission where:(1) it proposes to exercise any of the powers described in SUP 6.4.24 G; or(2) it has already begun disciplinary and restitution proceedings against the firm by exercising either or both of these powers against the firm.
COND 1.2.1GRP
COND gives guidance on the threshold conditions set out in or under Schedule 6 to the Act (Threshold conditions). The threshold conditions represent the minimum conditions which a firm is required to satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in order to be given and to retain Part IV permission.