Related provisions for SUP 15.7.2

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Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

CASS 5.6.5RRP
A primary pooling event occurs:(1) on the failure of the firm; or(2) on the vesting of assets in a trustee in accordance with an 'assets requirement' imposed under section 48(1)(b)of the Act; or(3) on the coming into force of a requirement for all client money held by the firm; or(4) when the firm notifies, or is in breach of its duty to notify, the FSA, in accordance with CASS 5.5.77 R1, that it is unable correctly to identify and allocate in its records all valid claims arising
SUP App 2.15.15GRP
Significant changes to, or departures from, a firm's run-off plan are likely to trigger one or more of the firm's obligations to notify the FSA. (See, for example, Principle 11 (Relations with regulators). The guidance in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) may also be relevant.)
PERG 5.12.13GRP
The effect of the IMD is that any EEA-based insurance intermediaries must first be registered in their home EEA State before carrying on insurance mediation in that EEA State or other EEA States. For these purposes, an EEA-based insurance intermediary is either:(1) a legal person with its registered office or head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or(2) a natural person resident in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom.Registered EEA-based insurance intermediaries
SUP 11.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)

Category of firm

Applicable sections

(1)

A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society or a UK insurance intermediary3

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(1A)

A building society

(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9

(b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3, RandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(2)

A non-directive friendly society

SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2, andSUP 11.9

(2A) 3

A UK insurance intermediary3

all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.3 GandSUP 11.4.4 R3

(3)

An overseas firm

All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, SUP 11.4.3 G, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, SUP 11.6.6 G, SUP 11.73

Note

In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the FSA under Part XII of the Act (Control over Authorised Persons) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) (No 2) Order 2001 (SI 2001/3338). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21
COLL 8.6.3RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may within any parameters which are fair and reasonable in respect of all the unitholders in the scheme and which are set out in the prospectus, suspend dealings in units of the scheme, a sub-fund or a class.(2) Any suspension within (1) must only be where the authorised fund manager has determined on reasonable grounds that there is good and sufficient reason in the interests of unitholders or potential unitholders and the authorised fund manager
SUP App 2.7.1GRP
Unless any of SUP App 2.4.1 R, SUP App 2.5.1 R, SUP App 2.5.3 R or SUP App 2.6.1 R applies, if a firm's circumstances change, such that its capital resources have fallen, or are expected to fall, below the level advised in individual capital guidance1 given to the firm by the FSA, then, consistent with PRIN 2.1.1 RPrinciple 11 (Relations with regulators), a firm should inform the FSA of this fact as soon as practicable, explaining why capital resources have fallen, or are expected
COLL 8.1.5GRP
Details of the application procedures in respect of qualified investor schemes are contained in COLL 2.1 (Authorised fund applications). COLLG provides details on how notifications may be made to the FSA.
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property.

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated; and
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy.

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to a third party.

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.
LR App 1.1.1RP

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the listing rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act

The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.

admission or admission to listing

admission of securities to the official list .

admission to trading

admission of securities to trading on an RIE's market for listedsecurities.

advertisement

(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:

(a)

relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and

(b)

aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.

applicant

an issuer which is applying for admission of securities.

asset backed security

(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:

(1)

represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable there under; or

(2)

are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.

associate

in relation to a director, substantial shareholder, 50/50 joint venture partner or person exercising significant influence, who is an individual:

(1)

that individual's spouse , civil partner 2or child (together "the individual's family");

(2)

the trustees (acting as such) of any trust of which the individual or any of the individual's family is a beneficiary or discretionary object (other than a trust which is either an occupational pension scheme or an employees' share scheme which does not, in either case, have the effect of conferring benefits on persons all or most of whom are related parties;

(3)

any company in whose equity securities the individual or any member or members (taken together) of the individual's family or the individual and any such member or members (taken together) are directly or indirectly interested (or have a conditional or contingent entitlement to become interested) so that they are (or would on the fulfilment of the condition or the occurrence of the contingency be) able:

(a) to exercise or control the exercise of 30% or more of the votes able to be cast at general meetings on all, or substantially all, matters; or

(b) to appoint or remove directors holding a majority of voting rights at board meetings on all, or substantially all, matters.

For the purpose of paragraph (3), if more than one director of the listedcompany, its parent undertaking or any of its subsidiary undertakings is interested in the equity securities of another company, then the interests of those directors and their associates will be aggregated when determining whether that company is an associate of the director.

in relation to a substantial shareholder, 50/50 joint venture partner or person exercising significant influence, which is a company:

(1)

any other company which is its subsidiary undertaking or parent undertaking or fellow subsidiary undertaking of the parent undertaking;

(2)

any company whose directors are accustomed to act in accordance with the substantial shareholder's, 50/50 joint venture partner's or person exercising significant influence's directions or instructions.

authorised person

(in accordance with section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons)) one of the following:

(a)

a person who has a Part IV permission to carry on one or more regulated activities;

(b)

an incoming EEA firm;

(c)

an incoming Treaty firm;

(d)

a UCITS qualifier;

(e)

an ICVC;

(f)

the Society of Lloyd's.

authorised property unit trust

a unit trust scheme authorised by the FSA and which is a property scheme or an umbrella scheme each separate part of which would qualify as a property scheme if it were a separate authorised unit trust scheme.

bank

(a)

a firm with a Part IV permission which includes accepting deposits, and:

but which is not a building society, a friendly society or a credit union;

(b)

an EEA bank which is a full credit institution.

base prospectus

a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R

book value of property

(in relation to a property company) the value of a property (which is not classified as a net current asset) before the deduction of mortgages or borrowings as shown in the company's latest annual report and accounts.

break fee

a fee payable by a listed company if certain specified events occur which have the effect of materially impeding a transaction or causing the transaction to fail.

building block

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.

business day

(1)

(in relation to anything done or to be done in (including to be submitted to a place in) any part of the United Kingdom), any day which is not a Saturday or Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a bank holiday in that part of the United Kingdom;

(2)

(in relation to anything done or to be done by reference to a market outside the United Kingdom) any day on which that market is normally open for business.

Buy-back and Stabilisation Regulation

Commission Regulation (EC) of 22 December 2003 implementing the Market Abuse Directive as regards exemptions for buy-back programmes and stabilisation of financial instruments (No 2273/2003).

CARD

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive.

certificate representing certain securities

the investment specified in article 80 of the Regulated Activities Order (Certificates representing certain securities), which is in summary: a certificate or other instrument which confers contractual or property rights (other than rights consisting of options):

(a)

in respect of any share, debenture, government and public security or warrant) held by a person other than the person on whom the rights are conferred by the certificate or instrument; and

(b)

the transfer of which may be effected without requiring the consent of that person;

but excluding any certificate or other instrument which confers rights in respect of two or more investments issued by different persons or in respect of two or more different government and public securities issued by the same person.

certificate representing debt securities

a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of debentures or government and public securities.

certificate representing equity securities

a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of equity securities.

certificate representing shares

a certificate representing certain securities where the certificate or other instrument confers rights in respect of equity shares.

CESR recommendations

the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission's Regulation on Prospectuses no 809/2004 published by the Committee of European Securities Regulators.

charge

(in relation to securitised derivatives) means any payment identified under the terms and conditions of the securitised derivatives.

Chinese wall

an arrangement that requires information held by a person in the course of carrying on one part of its business to be withheld from, or not to be used for, persons with or for whom it acts in the course of carrying on another part of its business.

circular

any document issued to holders of listed securities including notices of meetings but excluding prospectuses, listing particulars, annual reports and accounts, interim reports, proxy cards and dividend or interest vouchers.

class

securities the rights attaching to which are or will be identical and which form a single issue or issues.

class 1 acquisition

a class 1 transaction that involves an acquisition by the relevant listed company or its subsidiary undertaking.

class 1 circular

a circular relating to a class 1 transaction.

class 1 disposal

a class 1 transaction that consists of a disposal by the relevant listed company or its subsidiary undertaking.

class 1 transaction

a transaction classified as a class 1 transaction under LR 10.

class 2 transaction

a transaction classified as a class 2 transaction under LR 10 .

class 3 transaction

a transaction classified as a class 3 transaction under LR 10.

class tests

the tests set out in LR 10 Ann 1(and for certain specialist companies, those tests as modified or added to by LR 10.7), which are used to determine how a transaction is to be classified for the purposes of the listing rules.

closed-ended

(in relation to investment entities) an investment company which is not an open-ended investment company.

close period

as defined in paragraph 1(a) of the Model Code.

COB

the Conduct of Business Sourcebook.

3Combined Code

in relation to an issuer:

3(1)

in respect of a reporting period commencing on or after 1 November 2006the Combined Code on Corporate Governance published in June 2006 by the Financial Reporting Council; or

3(2)

in respect of a reporting period commencing before 1 November 2006, the Combined Code on Corporate Governance published in July 2003by the Financial Reporting Council.

company

any body corporate.

competent authority

(in relation to the functions referred to in Part VI of the Act):

(a)

the authority designated under Schedule 8 to the Act (transfer of functions under Part VI (Official listing)) as responsible for performing those functions under the Act; for the time being the FSA in its capacity as such; or

(b)

an authority exercising functions corresponding to those functions under the laws of another EEA State.

connected client

in relation to a sponsor or securities house, any client of the sponsor or securities house who is:

(a)

a partner, director, employee or controller (as defined in section 422 of the Act) of the sponsor or securities house or of an undertaking described in paragraph (d);

(b)

the spouse , civil partner 2or child of any individual described in paragraph (a);

(c)

a person in his capacity as trustee of a private trust (other than a pension scheme or an employees' share scheme) the beneficiaries of which include any person described in paragraph (a) or (b); or

(d)

an undertaking which in relation to the sponsor or securities house is a group undertaking.

connected person

as defined in section 96B(2) of the Act.

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive

Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities (No 2001/34/EC).

constitution

memorandum and articles of association or equivalent constitutional document.

contingent liability investment

a derivative under the terms of which the client will or may be liable to make further payments (other than charges, and whether or not secured by margin) when the transaction falls to be completed or upon the earlier closing out of his position.

contract of significance

a contract which represents in amount or value (or annual amount or value) a sum equal to 1% or more, calculated on a group basis where relevant, of:

(1)

in the case of a capital transaction or a transaction of which the principal purpose or effect is the granting of credit, the aggregate of the group's share capital and reserves; or

(2)

in other cases, the total annual purchases, sales, payments or receipts, as the case may be, of the group.

convertible securities

a security which is:

(1)

convertible into, or exchangeable for, other securities; or

(2)

accompanied by a warrant or option to subscribe for or purchase other securities.

deal

a dealing transaction;

dealing

(in accordance with paragraph 2 of Schedule 2 to the Act (Regulated activities)) buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting investments or offering or agreeing to do so, either as principal or as agent, including, in the case of an investment which is a contract of insurance, carrying out the contract.

debt security

debentures, debenture stock, loan stock, bonds, certificates of deposit or any other instrument creating or acknowledging indebtedness.

DEC

the Decision making manual.

depositary

a person that issues certificates representing certain securities that have been admitted to listing or are the subject of an application for admission to listing.

designated professional body

a professional body designated by the Treasury under section 326 of the Act (Designation of professional bodies) for the purposes of Part XX of the Act (Provision of Financial Services by Members of the Professions); as at 21 June 2001 the following professional bodies have been designated in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Designated Professional Bodies) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1226):

(a) The Law Society (England and Wales);

(b) The Law Society of Scotland;

(c) The Law Society of Northern Ireland;

(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales;

(e) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of Scotland;

(f) The Institute of Chartered Accountants in Ireland;

(g) The Association of Chartered Certified Accountants;

(h) The Institute of Actuaries.

director

(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.

disclosure rules and transparency rules

(in accordance with section73A(3) of the Act) rules relating to the disclosure of information in respect of financial instruments which have been admitted to trading on a regulated market or for which a request for admission to trading on such a market has been made.

document

any piece of recorded information, including (in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation)) information recorded in any form; in relation to information recorded otherwise than in legible form, references to its production include references to producing a copy of the information in legible form.

document viewing facility

a location identified on the FSA website where the public can inspect documents referred to in the listing rules as being documents to be made available at the document viewing facility.

DTR

the sourcebook containing the disclosure rules and transparency rules.

EEA State

(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.

employee

an individual:

(a)

who is employed or appointed by a person in connection with that person's business, whether under a contract of service or for services or otherwise; or

(b)

whose services, under an arrangement between that person and a third party, are placed at the disposal and under the control of that person;

but excluding an appointed representative of that person.

employees' share scheme

has the same meaning as in section 743 of the Companies Act 1985.

ENF

the Enforcement manual.

equity security

equity shares and securities convertible into equity shares.

equity share capital

(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.

exercise notice

(in relation to securitised derivatives), a document that notifies the issuer of a holder's intention to exercise its rights under the securitised derivative.

exercise price

(in relation to securitised derivatives), the price stipulated by the issuer at which the holder can buy or sell the underlying instrument from or to the issuer.

exercise time

(in relation to securitised derivatives), the time stipulated by the issuer by which the holder must exercise their rights.

expiration date

(in relation to securitised derivatives), the date stipulated by the issuer on which the holder's rights in respect of the securitised derivative ends.

extraction

(in relation to mineral companies), includes mining, quarrying or similar activities and the reworking of mine tailings or waste dumps.

FSA

the Financial Services Authority.

final terms

the document containing the final terms of each issue which is intended to be listed.

financial information table

financial information presented in a tabular form that covers the reporting period set out in in relation to the entities set out in , and to the extent relevant LR 13.5.15R and LR 13.5.16R.

50/50 joint venture

a joint venture where the two parties to the joint venture have a deadlocked interest in the joint venture.

50/50 joint venture partner

a party to a 50/50 joint venture with a listed company or its subsidiary undertaking.

group

(1)

except in LR 6.1.19 R, an issuer and its subsidiary undertakings (if any); and

(2)

in LR 6.1.19 R, as defined in section 421 of the Act.

guarantee

(in relation to securitised derivatives), either:

(1)

a guarantee given in accordance with LR 19.2.2R(3)(if any); or

(2)

any other guarantee of the issue of securitised derivatives.

guidance

guidance given by the FSA under the Act.

Handbook

the FSA's Handbook of rules and guidance.

Home Member State or Home State

(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive.

Host Member State or Host State

(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home Member State.

IAS

International Accounting Standards.

inside information

as defined in section 118C of the Act.

insider list

a list of persons with access to inside information as required by DTR 2.8.1 R.

intermediaries offer

a marketing of securities already or not yet in issue, by means of an offer by, or on behalf of, the issuer to intermediaries for them to allocate to their own clients.

International Accounting Standards

international accounting standards within the meaning of EC Regulation No 1606/2002 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 19 July 2002 as adopted from time to time by the European Commission in accordance with that Regulation.

in the money

(in relation to securitised derivatives):

(a)

where the holder has the right to buy the underlying instrument or instruments from the issuer, when the settlement price is greater than the exercise price; or

(b)

where the holder has the right to sell the underlying instrument or instruments to the issuer, when the exercise price is greater than the settlement price.

investment company

a company whose object is to invest its funds wholly or mainly in:

(a)

any of the following investments specified in the Regulated Activities Order:

i. share (article 76);

ii. debenture (article 77);

iii. government and public security (article 78);

iv. warrant (article 79);

v. certificate representing certain securities (article 80);

vi. unit (article 81);

vii. option (article 83);

viii. future (article 84);

ix. contract for differences (article 85);

x. rights to or interests in investments in (i) to (ix) (article 89);

(b)

interests in partnership arrangements, participations, joint ventures and other forms of non-corporate investment provided that the conditions of listing are met; or

(c)

interests in any other property provided that the relevant requirements of this chapter are met;

with the object of spreading investment risk and managing its portfolio for the benefit of its shareholders.

investment manager

a person who, acting only on behalf of a client:

(a)

manages designated investments in an account or portfolio on a discretionary basis under the terms of a discretionary management agreement; or

(b)

manages designated investments in an account or portfolio on a non-discretionary basis under the terms of a non-discretionary management agreement.

investment trust

a companylisted in the United Kingdom or another EEA State which:

(a)

is approved by the Inland Revenue Commissioners under section 842 of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988 (or, in the case of a newly formed company, has declared its intention to conduct its affairs so as to obtain such approval); or

(b)

is resident in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom and would qualify for such approval if resident and listed in the United Kingdom.

issuer

any company or other legal person or undertaking (including a public sector issuer), any class of whose securities has been admitted to listing or is the subject of an application for admission to listing.

list of sponsors

the list of sponsors maintained by the FSA in accordance with section 88(3)(a) of the Act.

listed

admitted to the official list maintained by the FSA in accordance with section 74 of the Act.

listed company

a company that has any class of its securitieslisted.

listing particulars

(in accordance with section 79(2) of the Act), a document in such form and containing such information as may be specified in listing rules.

listing rules

(in accordance with section73A(2) of the Act) rulesrelating to admission to the official list.

London Stock Exchange

London Stock Exchange Plc.

long-term incentive scheme

any arrangement (other than a retirement benefit plan, a deferred bonus or any other arrangement that is an element of an executive director's remuneration package) which may involve the receipt of any asset (including cash or any security) by a director or employee of the group:

(1)

which includes one or more conditions in respect of service and/or performance to be satisfied over more than one financial year; and

(2)

pursuant to which the group may incur (other than in relation to the establishment and administration of the arrangement) either cost or a liability, whether actual or contingent.

LR

the sourcebook containing the listing rules.

MAD

Market Abuse Directive.

major subsidiary undertaking

a subsidiary undertaking that represents 25% or more of the aggregate of the gross assets or profits (after deducting all charges except taxation) of the group.

Market Abuse Directive

Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 28 January 2003 on insider dealing and market manipulation (market abuse) (No 2003/6/EC).

member

(in relation to a profession) a person who is entitled to practise that profession and, in practising it, is subject to the rules of the relevant designated professional body, whether or not he is a member of that body.

mineral company

a company or group, whose principal activity is, or is planned to be, the extraction of mineral resources (which may or may not include exploration for mineral resources).

mineral expert's report

a report prepared in accordance with the CESR recommendations

mineral resources

include metallic and non-metallic ores, mineral concentrates, industrial minerals, construction aggregates, mineral oils, natural gases, hydrocarbons and solid fuels including coal.

Model Code

the Model Code on directors' dealings in securities set out in LR 9 Ann 1.

modified auditors report

an auditor's report:

(a)

in which the auditor's opinion is qualified; or

(b)

which sets out:

  • (i) a problem relating to the business as a going concern; or
  • (ii) a significant uncertainty, the resolution of which is dependent upon future events.

net annual rent

(in relation to a property) the current income or income estimated by the valuer:

(1)

ignoring any special receipts or deductions arising from the property;

(2)

excluding Value Added Tax and before taxation (including tax on profits and any allowances for interest on capital or loans); and

(3)

after making deductions for superior rents (but not for amortisation) and any disbursements including, if appropriate, expenses of managing the property and allowances to maintain it in a condition to command its rent.

new applicant

an applicant that does not have any class of its securities already listed.

non-EEA State

a country or state that is not an EEA State.

OECD state guaranteed issuer

an issuer of debt securities whose obligations in relation to those securities have been guaranteed by a member state of the OECD.

offer

an offer of transferable securities to the public.

offer for sale

an invitation to the public by, or on behalf of, a third party to purchase securities of the issuer already in issue or allotted (and may be in the form of an invitation to tender at or above a stated minimum price).

offer for subscription

an invitation to the public by, or on behalf of, an issuer to subscribe for securities of the issuer not yet in issue or allotted (and may be in the form of an invitation to tender at or above a stated minimum price).

offer of transferable securities to the public

(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:

(a)

a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on:

  • (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and
  • (ii) the terms on which they are offered,

to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;

(b)

which is made in any form or by any means;

(c)

including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;

(d)

but not including a communication in connection with trading on:

  • (i) a regulated market;
  • (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or
  • (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.

Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.

offeror

(a)

in LR 5.2.10R, an offeror as defined in the Takeover Code; and

(b)

elsewhere in LR, a personwho makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.

official list

the list maintained by the FSA in accordance with section 74(1) of the Act for the purposes of Part VI of the Act.

open ended investment companyopen-ended investment company

as defined in section 236 of the Act (Open-ended investment companies).

open offer

an invitation to existing securities holders to subscribe or purchase securities in proportion to their holdings, which is not made by means of a renounceable letter (or other negotiable document).

option

the investment, specified in article 83 of the Regulated Activities Order (Options), which is an option to acquire or dispose of:

  • (a) a designated investment (other than an option); or
  • (b) currency of the United Kingdom or of any other country or territory; or
  • (c) palladium, platinum, gold or silver; or
  • (d) an option to acquire or dispose of an option specified in (a), (b) or (c).

overseas

outside the United Kingdom.

overseas company

a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.

overseas investment exchange

an investment exchange which has neither its head office nor its registered office in the United Kingdom.

parent undertaking

as defined in section 258 of the Companies Act 1985.

Part 6 rules

(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act) rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.

PD

prospectus directive.

PD Regulation

Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission

percentage ratio

(in relation to a transaction) the figure, expressed as a percentage, that results from applying a calculation under a class test to the transaction.

person

(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporate (that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).

person discharging managerial responsibilities

as defined in section 96B(1) of the Act.

person exercising significant influence

in relation to a listed company, a person or entity which exercises significant influence over that listed company (other than a 50/50 joint venture partner).

placing

a marketing of securities already in issue but not listed or not yet in issue, to specified persons or clients of the sponsor or any securities house assisting in the placing, which does not involve an offer to the public or to existing holders of the issuer'ssecurities generally.

PR

the sourcebook containing the Prospectus Rules.

preference share

a share conferring preference as to income or return of capital which is not convertible into an equity share and does not form part of the equity share capital of a company.

primary listed issuer

an issuer with a primary listing of its securities.

primary listing

a listing by the FSA by virtue of which the issuer is subject to the full requirements of the listing rules.

probable reserves

(1)

in respect of mineral companies primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those reserves which are not yet proven but which, on the available evidence and taking into account technical and economic factors, have a better than 50% chance of being produced; and

(2)

in respect of mineral companies other than those primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those measured and/or indicated mineral resources, which are not yet proven but of which detailed technical and economic studies have demonstrated that extraction can be justified at the time of the determination and under specified economic conditions.

profit estimate

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.

profit forecast

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.

prohibited period

as defined inthe Model Code.

property

freehold, heritable or leasehold property.

property company

a company primarily engaged in property activities including:

(1)

the holding of properties (directly or indirectly) for letting and retention as investments;

(2)

the development of properties for letting and retention as investments;

(3)

the purchase and development of properties for subsequent sale; or

(4)

the purchase of land for development properties for retention as investments.

property investment company

an investment company or an investment trust which invests or intends to invests 20% or more of its gross assets directly in property and satisfies the requirements of LR 15.5 in addition to any other relevant requirements of LR 15.

property valuation report

a property valuation report prepared by an independent expert in accordance with the Appraisal and Valuation Standards (5th edition) issued by the Royal Institution of Chartered Surveyors.

prospectus

a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.

prospectus directive

the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).

prospectus rules

(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.

proven reserves

(1)

in respect of mineral companies primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those reserves which, on the available evidence and taking into account technical and economic factors, have a better than 90% chance of being produced; and

(2)

in respect of mineral companies other than those primarily involved in the extraction of oil and gas resources, those measured mineral resources of which detailed technical and economic studies have demonstrated that extraction can be justified at the time of the determination, and under specified economic conditions.

public international body

the African Development bank, the Asian Development Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Council of Europe Resettlement Fund, the European Atomic Energy Community, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Coal and Steel Community,the European Company for the Financing of Railroad Stock, the European Economic Community, the European Investment Bank, the Inter-American Development bank, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the International Finance Corporation, the International Monetary Fund, the Nordic Investment bank.

public sector issuer

states and their regional and local authorities, state monopolies, state finance organisations, public international bodies, statutory bodies and OECD state guaranteed issuers.

recognised scheme

a scheme recognised under:

(a)

section 264 of the Act (Schemes constituted in other EEA States); or

(b)

section 270 of the Act (Schemes authorised in designated countries or territories); or

(c)

section 272 of the Act (Individually recognised overseas schemes).

registration document

a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2R.

Regulated Activities Order

the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities)

Order 2001 (SI 2001/544).

regulated market

(a)

(as defined in article 1 of the ISD) a market for the instruments listed in Section B of the Annex to the ISD which:

    • (i) appears on the list of such markets drawn up by the market's Home State as required by article 16 of the ISD;
    • (ii) functions regularly;
    • (iii) is characterised by the fact that regulations issued or approved by the competent authorities define the conditions for the operation of the market, the conditions for access to the market and, where Directive 79/279/EEC is applicable, the conditions governing admission to listing imposed in that Directive and, where that Directive is not applicable, the conditions that must be satisfied by a financial instrument before it can effectively be dealt in on the market; and
    • (iv) requires compliance with all the reporting and transparency requirements laid down by articles 20 and 21 of the ISD;
    (see Tables 1 and 2 of SUP 17 Annex 5G for an indicative list of these markets); and

(b)

a market notified under article 16 of the ISD, as included in point 30b of Annex IX to the Agreement of the European Economic Area, to the Standing Committee of the EFTA States as defined in that agreement; (see Tables 3 and 4 of SUP 17 Annex 5G for an indicative list of these markets).

regulatory information service or RIS

a Regulatory Information Service that is approved by the FSA as meeting the Primary Information Provider criteria and that is on the list of Regulatory Information Services maintained by the FSA.

related party

as defined in LR 11.1.4R.

related party circular

a circular relating to a related party transaction.

related party transaction

as defined in LR 11.1.5R.

relevant securities

has the same meaning as in section 80 of the Companies Act 1985.

retail securitised derivative

a securitised derivative which is not a specialist securitised derivative; in this definition, a "specialist securitised derivative" is a securitisedderivative which, in accordance with the listing rules, is required to be admitted to listing with a clear statement on any disclosure document that the issue is intended for a purchase by only investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.

reverse takeover

a transaction classified as a reverse takeover under LR 10.

RIE

recognised investment exchange.

rights issue

an offer to existing security holders to subscribe or purchase further securities in proportion to their holdings made by means of the issue of a renounceable letter (or other negotiable document) which may be traded (as “nil paid” rights) for a period before payment for the securities is due.

rule

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FSA under the Act, including:

(a) a Principle; and

(b) an evidential provision.

Schedule

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.

scientific research based company

a company primarily involved in the laboratory research and development of chemical or biological products or processes or any other similar innovative science based company.

secondary listed issuer

an issuer with a secondary listing of its equity securities.

secondary listing

a listing by the FSA of equity securities of an overseas company which is not a primary listing.

securities note

a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2R.

securitised derivative

an option or contract for differences which, in either case, is listed under LR 19 (including such an option or contract for differences which is also a debenture).

security

(in accordance with section 102A of the Act) anything which has been, or may be admitted to the official list.

settlement price

(in relation to securitised derivatives), the reference price or prices of the underlying instrument or instruments stipulated by the issuer for the purposes of calculating its obligations to the holder.

shadow director

as in sub-paragraph (b) of the definition of director in section 417(1) of the Act.

share

(in accordance with section 744 of the Companies Act 1985) a share in the share capital of a company, and includes:

(a)

stock (except where a distinction between shares and stock is express or implied); and

(b)

preference shares.

specialist investor

an investor who is particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.

specialist securities

securities which, because of their nature, are normally bought and traded by a limited number of investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.

specialist securitised derivative

a securitised derivative which because of its nature is normally bought and traded by a limited number of investors who are particularly knowledgeable in investment matters.

specified investment

any of the following investments specified in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified Investments):

(a)

deposit (article 74);

(aa)

electronic money (article 74A);

(b)

contract of insurance (article 75); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into:

and then further sub-divided into classes of contract of insurance;

(c)

share (article 76);

(d)

debenture (article 77);

(e)

government and public security (article 78);

(f)

warrant (article 79);

(g)

certificate representing certain securities (article 80);

(h)

unit (article 81);

(i)

stakeholder pension scheme (article 82);

(j)

option (article 83); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into:

(k)

future (article 84); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into:

(l)

contract for differences (article 85); for the purposes of the permission regime, this is sub-divided into:

(m)

underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate (article 86(1));

(n)

membership of a Lloyd's syndicate (article 86(2));

(o)

funeral plan contract (article 87);

(oa)

regulated mortgage contract (article 61(3);

(p)

rights to or interests in investments (article 89).

sponsor

a person approved, under section 88 of the Act by the FSA, as a sponsor.

state finance organisation

a legal person other than a company:

(1)

which is a national of an EEA State;

(2)

which is set up by or pursuant to a special law;

(3)

whose activities are governed by that law and consist solely of raising funds under state control through the issue of debt securities;

(4)

which is financed by means of the resources they have raised and resources provided by the EEA State; and

(5)

the debt securities issued by it are considered by the law of the relevant EEA State as securities issued or guaranteed by that state.

state monopoly

a company or other legal person which is a national of an EEA State and which:

(1)

in carrying on its business benefits from a monopoly right granted by an EEA state; and

(2)

is set up by or pursuant to a special law or whose borrowings are unconditionally and irrevocably guaranteed by an EEA state or one of the federated states of an EEA state.

subsidiary undertaking

as defined in section 258 of the Companies Act 1985.

substantial shareholder

any person (excluding a bare trustee) who is entitled to exercise or to control the exercise of 10% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of the company (or any other company which is its subsidiary undertaking or parent undertaking or is a fellow subsidiary undertaking of its parent undertaking).

summary

(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.

SUP

the Supervision manual.

supplementary listing particulars

(in accordance with section 81(1) of the Act), supplementary listing particulars containing details of the change or new matter.

supplementary prospectus

a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.

Takeover Code

the City Code on Takeovers and Mergers issued by the TakeoverPanel.

target

the subject of a class 1 transaction.

tender offer

an offer by a company to purchase all or some of a class of its listedequity securities or preference shares at a maximum or fixed price (that may be established by means of a formula) that is:

(1)

communicated to all holders of that class by means of a circular or advertisement in two national newspapers;

(2)

open to all holders of that class on the same terms for at least 7 days; and

(3)

open for acceptance by all holders of that class pro rata to their existing holdings.

transferable security

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of the investment services directive, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months.

treasury shares

qualifying shares to which sections 162A to 162G of the Companies Act 1985 apply.

trust deed

a trust deed or equivalent document securing or constituting debt securities.

UK

United Kingdom.

underlying instrument

(in relation to securitised derivatives) means either:

(1)

if the securitised derivative is an option or debt security with the characteristics of an option, any of the underlying investments listed in article 83 of the Regulated Activities Order; or

(2)

if the securitised derivative is a contract for differences or debt security with the characteristics of a contract for differences, any factor by reference to which a profit or loss under article 85 of the Regulated Activities Order can be calculated.

unrecognised scheme

a collective investment scheme which is neither a recognised scheme nor a scheme that is constituted as an authorised unit trust scheme.

vendor consideration placing

a marketing, by or on behalf of vendors, of securities that have been allotted as consideration for an acquisition.

venture capital trust

a company which is, or which is seeking to become, approved as a venture capital trust under section 842AA of the Income and Corporation Taxes Act 1988.

warrant

the investment, specified in article 79 of the Regulated Activities Order (Instruments giving entitlements to investments), which is in summary: a warrant or other instrument entitling the holder to subscribe for a share, debenture or government and public security.