Related provisions for SUP 11.4.1
121 - 140 of 186 items.
The carrying on of an activity in DISP 2.6.1 R includes offering, providing or failing to provide and administering or failing to administer a service in relation to the activities covered by that rule. This includes the manner in which a firm has administered its business, provided that the business is an activity subject to the jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service.
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation) or section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes).(2) COLLG 3 (The FSA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FSA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations) provide more information on what the Act and the OEIC Regulations require in
Applicable sections (see SUP 11.1.1 R)
Category of firm |
Applicable sections |
|
(1) |
A UK domestic firm other than a building society, a non-directive friendly society or a UK insurance intermediary3 |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2A RandSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
(1A) |
(a) In the case of an exempt change in control (see Note), SUP 11.1, SUP 11.2andSUP 11.9 (b) In any other case, all except SUP 11.3, RandSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
|
(2) |
||
(2A) 3 |
all exceptSUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.3 GandSUP 11.4.4 R3 |
|
(3) |
All except SUP 11.3, SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R, SUP 11.4.3 G, SUP 11.4.9 G, SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G, SUP 11.6.2 R, SUP 11.6.3 R, SUP 11.6.6 G, SUP 11.73 |
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Note |
In row (1A), a change in control is exempt if the controller or proposed controller is exempt from any obligation to notify the FSA under Part XII of the Act (Control over Authorised Persons) because of The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) (No 2) Order 2001 (SI 2001/3338). (See SUP 11.3.2A G).21 |
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This manual applies in the following way:(1) FEES 1, 2 and 3 apply to:(a) every applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission);(b) every Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right; (c) every applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order;(d) every
(1) An originator of a synthetic securitisation may calculate risk weighted exposure amount, and, as relevant, expected loss amounts, for the securitised exposures in accordance with BIPRU 9.5.3 R and BIPRU 9.5.4 R, if significant credit risk has been transferred to third parties, either through funded or unfunded credit protection, and the transfer complies with the conditions in (2)-(5).(2) The securitisation documentation must reflect the economic substance of the transaction.(3)
(1) The authorised fund manager may within any parameters which are fair and reasonable in respect of all the unitholders in the scheme and which are set out in the prospectus, suspend dealings in units of the scheme, a sub-fund or a class.(2) Any suspension within (1) must only be where the authorised fund manager has determined on reasonable grounds that there is good and sufficient reason in the interests of unitholders or potential unitholders and the authorised fund manager
(1) As part of its obligations under GENPRU 1.2.30 R (Processes, strategies and systems for risks) and GENPRU 1.2.36 R (Stress and scenario tests) a firm must carry out an evaluation of its exposure to the interest rate risk arising from its non-trading activities.(2) The evaluation under (1) must cover the effect of a sudden and unexpected parallel change in interest rates of 200 basis points in both directions.(3) A firm must immediately notify the FSA if any evaluation under
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order2 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:22(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive; or22(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or2(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the Investment Services Directive.2(1A) Similarly, an EEA firm which:2(a) has satisfied the
If the CAD 1 model ceases to meet the requirements of the waiver, the firm should notify the FSA at once. The FSA may then revoke the waiver unless it is varied in accordance with section 148 of the Act. If the CAD 1 model waiver contains conditions it is a condition of using the CAD 1 model approach that the firm should continue to comply with those conditions.
A firm applying for a waiver from one or more of the disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R will need to:(1) satisfy the FSA that it is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State; and(2) notify the FSA of the location where the comparable disclosures are provided.
(1) Unless the EEA firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the FSA receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required (in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive), is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the FSA will, under paragraphs 14(2)(b) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the EEA firm of the applicable provisions (if any) within
Unless any of SUP App 2.4.1 R, SUP App 2.5.1 R, SUP App 2.5.3 R or SUP App 2.6.1 R applies, if a firm's circumstances change, such that its capital resources have fallen, or are expected to fall, below the level advised in individual capital guidance1 given to the firm by the FSA, then, consistent with PRIN 2.1.1 RPrinciple 11 (Relations with regulators), a firm should inform the FSA of this fact as soon as practicable, explaining why capital resources have fallen, or are expected
1The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is to ensure that, in addition to the notifications made under SUP 12.7 (Appointed representatives; notification requirements), the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the appointed representatives engaged by a firm, so that the FSA is in a better position to pursue the regulatory objective of the protection of consumers.3