Related provisions for SUP App 3.6.1

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PERG 5.15.2GRP
Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation activities – do you need authorisation?
PERG 5.15.8GRP
Flow chart: am I carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom?
COLL 5.6.8RRP
(1) This rule applies in respect of government and public securities.(2) The requirements in COLL 5.2.12 R (Spread: government and public securities) apply to investment in government and public securities by a non-UCITS retail scheme, except for COLL 5.2.12R (4) which will apply to such a scheme only to the extent that it concerns the most recently published prospectus of the scheme1.
PERG 8.12.18GRP
The purpose of these 1exemptions1 is to ensure that, subject to certain conditions, the restriction in section 21 of the Act does not apply to those who merely transport the financial promotions of other persons. Obvious examples here are postal and Internet service providers, courier companies and telecommunications companies. PERG 8.6.5 G explains that such persons may not be regarded as communicating a financial promotion simply because they have distributed it. Article 18
PERG 8.12.38GRP
Article 20B gives effect to the provisions of the E- Commerce Directive by exempting incoming electronic commerce communications. However, article 20B does not apply to the following communications:(1) an advertisement by the operator of a UCITS of units in that scheme; or(2) an invitation or inducement to enter into a contract of insurance where:(a) it is made by an undertaking which has received official authorisation in line with article 6 of the First Life Directive or the
COLL 4.2.3RRP
(1) An ICVC or the manager of an AUT must:(a) supply a copy of the scheme's most recent prospectus drawn up and published in accordance with COLL 4.2.2 R (Publishing the prospectus) free of charge to any person on request; and(b) file a copy of the scheme's original prospectus, together with all revisions thereto, with the FSA .(2) An ICVC or the manager of an AUT which in either case is a UCITS scheme intending to market units in the territory of another EEA State must:(a) ensure
COLL 4.2.5RRP

This table belongs to COLL 4.2.2 R (Publishing the prospectus).

Document status

1

A statement that the document is the prospectus of the authorised fund valid as at a particular date (which shall be the date of the document).

Authorised fund

2

A description of the authorised fund including:

(a)

its name;

(b)

whether it is an ICVC or an AUT and that:

(i)

unitholders are not liable for the debts of the authorised fund;

(ii)

for an ICVC, a statement that the sub-funds of a scheme which is an umbrella are not 'ring fenced' and in the event of the umbrella being unable to meet liabilities attributable to any particular sub-fund out of the assets attributable to that sub-fund, that the remaining liabilities may have to be met out of the assets attributable to other sub-funds;

3(ba)

whether it is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme;

(c)

for an ICVC, the address of its head office and the address of the place in the United Kingdom for service on the ICVC of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it;

(d)

the effective date of the authorisation order made by the FSA and relevant details of termination, if the duration of the authorised fund is limited;

(e)

its base currency;

(f)

for an ICVC, the maximum and minimum sizes of its capital; and

(g)

the circumstances in which it may be wound up under the rules and a summary of the procedure for, and the rights of unitholders under, such a winding up

Investment objectives and policy

3

The following particulars of the investment objectives and policy of the authorised fund:

(a)

the investment objectives, including its financial objectives;

(b)

the authorised fund's investment policy for achieving those investment objectives, including the general nature of the portfolio and, if appropriate, any intended specialisation;

(c)

an indication of any limitations on that investment policy;

(d)

the description of assets which the capital property may consist of;

(e)

the proportion of the capital property which may consist of an asset of any description;

(f)

the description of transactions which may be effected on behalf of the authorised fund and an indication of any techniques and instruments or borrowing powers which may be used in the management of the authorised fund;

(g)

a list of the eligible markets through which the authorised fund may invest or deal in accordance with COLL 5.2.10 R (2)(b) (Eligible markets: requirements);

(h)

for an ICVC, a statement as to whether it is intended that the scheme will have an interest in any immovable property or movable property ((in accordance with COLL 5.6.4 R (2) (Investment powers: general) or COLL 5.2.8 R (2) (UCITS schemes: general)) for the direct pursuit of the ICVC's business;

(i)

where COLL 5.2.12 R (3) (Spread: government and public securities) applies, a prominent statement as to the fact that more than 35% of the scheme property is or may be invested in government and public securities and the names of the individual states, local authorities or public international bodies in whose securities the authorised fund may invest more than 35% of the scheme property;

(k)

for an authorised fund which may invest in other schemes, the extent to which the scheme property may be invested in the units of schemes which are managed by the authorised fund manager or by its associate;

(l)

where a scheme invests principally in scheme units, deposits or derivatives, or replicates an index in accordance with COLL 5.2.31 R or COLL 5.6.23 R (Schemes replicating an index), a prominent statement regarding this investment policy;

(m)

where derivatives transactions may be used in a scheme, a prominent statement as to whether these transactions are for the purposes of hedging or meeting the investment objectives or both and the possible outcome of the use of derivatives on the risk profile of the scheme;

(n)

information concerning the profile of the typical investor for whom the scheme is designed;

(o)

information concerning the historical performance of the scheme presented in accordance with COB 3.8.11 R (Specific non-real time financial promotions: past performance);

(p)

for a non-UCITS retail scheme which invests in immovables, a statement of the countries or territories of situation of land or buildings in which the authorised fund may invest;

(q)

for a UCITS scheme which invests a substantial portion of its assets in other schemes, a statement of the maximum level of management fees that may be charged to that UCITS scheme and to the schemes in which it invests;

(r)

where the net asset value of a UCITS scheme is likely to have high volatility owing to its portfolio composition or the portfolio management techniques that may be used, a prominent statement to that effect; and

(s)

for a UCITS scheme, a statement that any unitholder may obtain on request the types of information (which must be listed) referred to in COLL 4.2.3R (3) (Availability of prospectus and long report).

Reporting, distributions and accounting dates

4

Relevant details of the reporting, accounting and distribution information which includes:

(a)

the accounting and distribution dates;

(b)

procedures for:

(i)

determining and applying income (including how any distributable income is paid);

(ii)

unclaimed distributions; and

(iii)

if relevant, calculating, paying and accounting for income equalisation;

(c)

the accounting reference date and when the long report will be published in accordance with COLL 4.5.14 R (Publication and availability of annual and half-yearly long report); and

(d)

when the short report will be sent to unitholders in accordance with COLL 4.5.13 R (Provision of short report).

Characteristics of the units

5

Information as to:

(a)

where there is more than one class of unit in issue or available for issue, the name of each such class and the rights attached to each class in so far as they vary from the rights attached to other classes;

(b)

where the instrument constituting the scheme provides for the issue of bearer certificates, that fact and what procedures will operate for them;

(c)

how unitholders may exercise their voting rights and what these amount to;

(d)

where a mandatory redemption, cancellation or conversion of units from one class to another may be required, in what circumstances it may be required; and

(e)

for an AUT, the fact that the nature of the right represented by units is that of a beneficial interest under a trust.

Authorised fund manager

6

The following particulars of the authorised fund manager:

(a)

its name;

(b)

the nature of its corporate form;

(c)

the date of its incorporation;

(d)

the address of its registered office;

(e)

the address of its head office, if that is different from the address of its registered office;

(f)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom;

(g)

if the duration of its corporate status is limited, when that status will or may cease; and

(h)

the amount of its issued share capital and how much of it is paid up.

Directors of an ICVC, other than the ACD

7

Other than for the ACD:

(a)

the names and positions in the ICVC of any other directors (if any); and

(b)

the manner, amount and calculation of the remuneration of such directors.

Depositary

8

The following particulars of the depositary:

(a)

its name;

(b)

the nature of its corporate form;

(c)

the address of its registered office;

(d)

the address of its head office, if that is different from the address of its registered office;

(e)

if neither its registered office nor its head office is in the United Kingdom, the address of its principal place of business in the United Kingdom; and

(f)

a description of its principal business activity.

Investment adviser

9

If an investment adviser is retained in connection with the business of an authorised fund:

(a)

its name; and

(b)

where it carries on a significant activity other than providing services to the authorised fund as an investment adviser, what that significant activity is.

Auditor

10

The name of the auditor of the authorised fund.

Contracts and other relationships with parties

11

The following relevant details:

(a)

for an ICVC:

(i)

a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC and the ACD3 which may be relevant to unitholders including provisions (if any) relating to remuneration, termination, compensation on termination and indemnity;

3

(ii)

the main business activities of each of the directors (other than those connected with the business of the ICVC) where these are of significance to the ICVC's business;

(iii)

if any director is a body corporate in a group of which any other corporate director of the ICVC is a member, a statement of that fact;

3

(iv)

the main terms of each contract of service between the ICVC and a director in summary form; and3

3(v)

for an ICVC that does not hold annual general meetings, a statement that copies of contracts of service between the ICVC and its directors, including the ACD, will be provided to a unitholder on request;

(b)

the names of the directors of the authorised fund manager and the main business activities of each of the directors (other than those connected with the business of the authorised fund) where these are of significance to the authorised fund's business;

(c)

a summary of the material provisions of the contract between the ICVC or the manager of the AUT and the depositary which may be relevant to unitholders, including provisions relating to the remuneration of the depositary;

(d)

if an investment adviser retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund is a body corporate in a group of which any director of the ICVC or the manager of the AUT is a member, that fact;

(e)

a summary of the material provisions of any contract between the authorised fund manager or the ICVC and any investment adviser which may be relevant to unitholders;

(f)

if an investment adviser retained in connection with the business of the authorised fund has the authority of the authorised fund manager or the ICVC to make decisions on behalf of the authorised fund manager or the ICVC, that fact and a description of the matters in relation to which it has that authority;

(g)

what functions (if any) the authorised fund manager has delegated and to whom; and

(h)

in what capacity (if any), the authorised fund manager acts in relation to any other regulated collective investment schemes2 and the name of such schemes.

2

Register of Unitholders

12

Details of:

(a)

the address in the United Kingdom where the register of unitholders, and where relevant the plan register is kept and can be inspected by unitholders; and

(b)

the registrar's name and address.

Payments out of scheme property

13

In relation to each type of payment from the scheme property, details of:

(a)

who the payment is made to;

(b)

what the payment is for;

(c)

the rate or amount where available;

(d)

how it will be calculated and accrued;

(e)

when it will be paid; and

(f)

where a performance fee is taken, examples of its operation in plain English and the maximum it can amount to.

Allocation of payments

14

If, in accordance with COLL 6.2.19 (Allocation of payments to income or capital), the authorised fund manager and the depositary have agreed that all or part of any income expense payments may be treated as a capital expense:

(a)

that fact;

(b)

the policy for allocation of these payments; and

(c)

a statement that this policy may result in capital erosion or constrain capital growth.

Moveable and immovable property (ICVC only)

15

An estimate of any expenses likely to be incurred by the ICVC in respect of movable and immovable property in which the ICVC has an interest.

Valuation and pricing of scheme property

16

In relation to the valuation of scheme property and pricing of units1:

1

(a)

either:1

1

(i)

in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,1 a provision that there must be only a single price for any unit as determined from time to time by reference to a particular valuation point; or1

(ii)

1in the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the authorised fund manager's policy for determining prices for the sale and redemption of units by reference to a particular valuation point and an explanation of how those prices may differ;

(b)

details of:

(i)

how the value of the scheme property is to be determined in relation to each purpose for which the scheme property must be valued;

(ii)

how frequently and at what time or times of the day the scheme property will be regularly valued for dealing purposes and a description of any circumstance in which the scheme property may be specially valued;

(iii)

where relevant, how the price of units of each class will be determined for dealing purposes;

1

(iv)

where and at what frequency the most recent prices will be published; and

(v)

1where relevant in the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the authorised fund manager's policy in relation to large deals; and

(c)

if provisions in (a) and (b) do not take effect when the instrument constituting the scheme or (where appropriate) supplemental trust deed takes effect, a statement of the time from which those provisions are to take effect or how it will be determined.

Dealing

17

The following particulars:

(a)

the procedures, the dealing periods and the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager will effect:

(i)

the sale and redemption of units and the settlement of transactions (including the minimum number or value of units which one person may hold or which may be subject to any transaction of sale or redemption) for each class of unit in the authorised fund; and

(ii)

any direct issue or cancellation of units by an ICVC or by the trustee (as appropriate) through the authorised fund manager in accordance with COLL 6.2.7R (2) (Issue and cancellation of units through an authorised fund manager);

(b)

the circumstances in which the redemption of units may be suspended;

(c)

whether certificates will be issued in respect of registered units;

(d)

the circumstances in which the authorised fund manager may arrange for, and the procedure for the issue or cancellation of units in specie;

(e)

the investment exchanges (if any) on which units in the scheme are listed or dealt;

(f)

the circumstances and conditions for issuing units in an authorised fund which limit the issue of any class of units in accordance with COLL 6.2.21 (Limited issue);

(g)

the circumstances and procedures for the limitation or deferral of redemptions in accordance with COLL 6.2.16 (Limited redemption) or COLL 6.3.8 (Deferred redemption); and

(h)

in a prospectus available during the period of any initial offer:

(i)

the length of the initial offer period;

(ii)

the initial price of a unit, which must be in the base currency;

(iii)

the arrangements for issuing units during the initial offer, including the authorised fund manager's intentions on investing the subscriptions received during the initial offer;

(iv)

the circumstances when the initial offer will end;

(v)

whether units will be sold or issued in any other currency; and

(vi)

any other relevant details of the initial offer .

Dilution

18

In the case of a single-priced authorised fund, details1 of what is meant by dilution including:

(a)

a statement explaining:

(i)

that it is not possible to predict accurately whether dilution is likely to occur; and

(ii)

which of the policies the authorised fund manager is adopting under COLL 6.3.8 (1) (Dilution) together with an explanation of how this policy may affect the future growth of the authorised fund; and

(b)

if the authorised fund manager may require a dilution levy or make a dilution adjustment, a statement of:

(i)

the authorised fund manager's policy in deciding when to require a dilution levy, including the authorised fund manager's policy on large deals, or when to make a dilution adjustment;

(ii)

the estimated rate or amount of any dilution levy or dilution adjustment based either on historical data or future projections; and

(iii)

the likelihood that the authorised fund manager may require a dilution levy or make a dilution adjustment and the basis (historical or projected) on which the statement is made.

SDRT provision

19

An explanation of:

(a)

what is meant by stamp duty reserve tax, SDRT provision and large deals; and

(b)

the authorised fund manager's policy on imposing an SDRT provision including its policy on large deals, and the occasions, and the likely frequency of the occasions, in which an SDRT provision may be imposed and the maximum rate of it (a usual rate may also be stated).

Forward and historic pricing

20

The authorised fund manager's normal basis of pricing under COLL 6.3.9 (Forward and historic pricing).

Preliminary charge

21

Where relevant, a statement authorising the authorised fund manager to make a preliminary charge and specifying the basis for and current amount or rate of that charge.

Redemption charge

22

Where relevant, a statement authorising the authorised fund manager to deduct a redemption charge out of the proceeds of redemption; and if the authorised fund manager makes a redemption charge:

(a)

the current amount of that charge or if it is variable, the rate or method of calculating it;

(b)

if the amount, rate or method has been changed, that details of any previous amount, rate or method may be obtained from the authorised fund manager on request; and

(c)

how the order in which units acquired at different times by a unitholder is to be determined so far as necessary for the purposes of the imposition of the redemption charge.

General information

23

Details of:

(a)

the address at which copies of the instrument constituting the scheme, any amending instrument and the most recent annual and half-yearly long reports may be inspected and from which copies may be obtained;

(b)

the manner in which any notice or document will be served on unitholders;

(c)

the extent to which and the circumstances in which:

(i)

the scheme is liable to pay or suffer tax on any appreciation in the value of the scheme property or on the income derived from the scheme property; and

(ii)

deductions by way of withholding tax may be made from distributions of income to unitholders and payments made to unitholders on the redemption of units;

3

(d)

for a UCITS scheme, any possible fees or expenses not described in paragraphs 13 to 22, distinguishing between those to be paid by a unitholder and those to be paid out of scheme property; and3

3

3(e)

for an ICVC, whether or not annual general meetings will be held.

Information on the umbrella

24

In the case of a scheme which is an umbrella, the following information:

(a)

that a unitholder is entitled to exchange units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund (other than a sub-fund which has limited the issue of units);

(b)

that an exchange of units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund is treated as a redemption and sale and will, for persons subject to United Kingdom taxation, be a realisation for the purposes of capital gains taxation;

(c)

that in no circumstances will a unitholder who exchanges units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund be given a right by law to withdraw from or cancel the transaction;

(d)

the policy for allocating between sub-funds any assets of, or costs, charges and expenses payable out of, the scheme property which are not attributable to any particular sub-fund;

(e)

what charges, if any, may be made on exchanging units in one sub-fund for units in any other sub-fund;

(f)

for each sub-fund, the currency in which the scheme property allocated to it will be valued and the price of units calculated and payments made, if this currency is not the base currency of the scheme which is an umbrella; and

(g)

if there are units for less than two sub-funds in issue, the effect of COLL 3.2.7 R (Umbrella scheme with only one sub-fund).

Application of the prospectus contents to an umbrella

25

For a scheme which is an umbrella, information required must be stated:

(a)

in relation to each sub-fund where the information for any sub-fund differs from that for any other; and

(b)

for the umbrella as a whole, but only where the information is relevant to the umbrella as a whole.

Marketing in another EEA state

26

A prospectus of a UCITS scheme which is prepared for the purpose of marketing units in a EEA State other than the United Kingdom, must give details as to:

(a)

what special arrangements have been made:

(i)

for paying in that EEA State amounts distributable to unitholders resident in that EEA State;

(ii)

for redeeming in that EEA State the units of unitholders resident in that EEA State;

(iii)

for inspecting and obtaining copies in that EEA State of the instrument constituting the scheme and amendments to it, the prospectus and the annual and half-yearly long report; and

(iv)

for making public the price of units of each class; and

(b)

how the ICVC or the manager of an AUT will publish in that EEA State notice:

(i)

that the annual and half-yearly long report are available for inspection;

(ii)

that a distribution has been declared;

(iii)

of the calling of a meeting of unitholders; and

(iv)

of the termination of the authorised fund or the revocation of its authorisation.

Additional information

27

Any other material information which is within the knowledge of the directors of an ICVC or the manager of an AUT, or which the directors or manager would have obtained by making reasonable enquiries, including but not confined to, the following matters:

(a)

information which investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find in the prospectus, for the purpose of making an informed judgement about the merits of investing in the authorised fund and the extent and characteristics of the risks accepted by so participating;

(b)

a clear and easily understandable explanation of any risks which investment in the authorised fund may reasonably be regarded as presenting for reasonably prudent investors of moderate means;

(c)

if there is any arrangement intended to result in a particular capital or income return from a holding of units in the authorised fund or any investment objective of giving protection to the capital value of, or income return from, such a holding:

(i)

details of that arrangement or protection;

(ii)

for any related guarantee, sufficient details about the guarantor and the guarantee to enable a fair assessment of the value of the guarantee;

(iii)

a description of the risks that could affect achievement of that return or protection; and

(iv)

details of the arrangements by which the authorised fund manager will notify unitholders of any action required by the unitholders to obtain the benefit of the guarantee; and

(d)

whether any notice has been given to unitholders of the authorised fund manager intention to propose a change to the scheme and if so, its particulars.

INSPRU 1.1.5RRP
For a UK-deposit insurer:(1) the part of this section headed "Capital requirements for insurers" (INSPRU 1.1.43 G to INSPRU 1.1.92B G) applies to its world-wide activities;(2) the parts of this section headed:(a) "Establishing technical provisions" (INSPRU 1.1.12 R to INSPRU 1.1.19 G);(b) "Reinsurance and analogous non-reinsurance financing agreements: risk transfer principle" (INSPRU 1.1.19A R to INSPRU 1.1.19F G);(c) "Assets of a value sufficient to cover technical provisions
INSPRU 1.1.6GRP
This section may apply in cases where a firm has its head office in another EEA State but is neither an incoming EEA firm nor an incoming Treaty firm; this could arise in the case of a non-directive mutual.
SUP 6.3.3GRP
In applying for a variation of Part IV permission, a branch of a firm from outside the EEA should be mindful of any continuing requirements referred to in AUTH 3.18 and, for insurers, AUTH 3.12.
PERG 9.1.5GRP
Open-ended investment companies constituted in other EEA States which are seeking to exercise rights conferred by the UCITS Directive should refer to COLL 9 (Recognised schemes) and CIS 17 (Recognised Schemes) for guidance on the requirements of section 264 of the Act (Schemes constituted in other EEA States).
COLL 7.6.2RRP
(1) If a scheme of arrangement is entered into in relation to an authorised fund ("transferor fund") or a sub-fund of a scheme which is an umbrella ("transferor sub-fund"), an authorised fund manager must ensure that the unitholders of the transferor fund or sub-fund do not become unitholders of units in a collective investment scheme other than a regulated collective investment scheme.(2) For a UCITS scheme or a sub-fund of a UCITS scheme, (1) applies as if the reference to a
BIPRU 2.1.2GRP
The purpose of this section is to implement Articles 70 and 118 of the Banking Consolidation Directive. It also implements Articles 2 and 28 of the Capital Adequacy Directiveso far as they apply those provisions of the Banking Consolidation Directive to CAD investment firms.
BIPRU 7.7.7RRP
The general eligibility criteria for using the methods in BIPRU 7.7.4R and BIPRU 7.7.9R - BIPRU 7.7.11R, for CIUs issued by companies supervised or incorporated within the EEA are that:(1) the CIU's prospectus or equivalent document must include:(a) the categories of assets the CIU is authorised to invest in;(b) if investment limits apply, the relative limits and the methodologies to calculate them;(c) if leverage is allowed, the maximum level of leverage; and(d) if investment
SYSC 2.1.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 2.1.3 R

This table belongs to SYSC 2.1.5 G

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application). In particular, an incoming EEA firm is referred to the EEA investment business oversight function (CF 9, see SUP 10.7.6 R).

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 3.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3).If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firm may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals willnevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.2

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or

(2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 2.1.4 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1.1.7 R). Note that SYSC 1.1.10 R does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 2 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1.1.1 R (2) and SYSC 1.1.7 R restrict the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 2.1.3 R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SYSC App 1). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.1

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 2.1.4 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the Combined Code developed by the Committee on Corporate Governancerecommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).

15

What about incoming electronic commerce activities?

ECO 1.1.6 R has the effect that SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1

PR App 1.1.1RP

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act

the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.

admission to trading

admission to trading on a regulated market.

advertisement

(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:

(1)

relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and

(2)

aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.

annual information update

the document referred to in PR 5.2.1 R.

applicant

an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.

asset backed security

(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:

(1)

represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or

(2)

are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.

base prospectus

a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.

body corporate

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

building block

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.

CARD

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive.

CESR recommendations

the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission's Regulation on Prospectuses no 809/2004 published by the Committee of European Securities Regulators.

collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type

(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:

(1)

the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;

(2)

the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive

Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.

credit institution

as defined in article 1(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive.

director

(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.

EEA State

(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.

equity security

(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.

equity share

shares comprised in a company'sequity share capital.

equity share capital

(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.

executive procedures

the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that the FSA proposes to follow in the circumstances specified in DEC 4.1.6 G (Decisions to be taken by executive procedures), and that are described in DEC 4.3 (Executive procedures for statutory notice decisions and statutory notice associated decisions).

FSA

the Financial Services Authority.

guarantee

(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.

guarantor

a person that provides a guarantee.

Home State or Home Member State

(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).

Host State or Host Member State

(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.

Investment Services Directive

the Council Directive of 10 May 1993 on investment services in the securities field (No 93/22/EEC).

ISD

Investment Services Directive.

issuer

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.

non-equity transferable securities

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.

Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".

offer

an offer of transferable securities to the public.

offer of transferable securities to the public

(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:

(a)

a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on:

  • (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and
  • (ii) the terms on which they are offered,

to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;

(b)

which is made in any form or by any means;

(c)

including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;

(d)

but not including a communication in connection with trading on:

  • (i) a regulated market;
  • (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or
  • (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.

Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.

offering programme

(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.

offeror

a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.

overseas company

a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.

Part 6 rules

(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.

PD

prospectus directive.

PD Regulation

Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.

person

(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).

PR

the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.

profit estimate

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.

profit forecast

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.

property collective investment undertaking

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.

prospectus

a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.

prospectus directive

the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).

Prospectus Rules

(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.

Public international body

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.

qualified investor

(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) :

(a)

any entity falling within the meaning of Article 2(1)(e)(i), (ii) or (iii) of the prospectus directive;

(b)

An investor registered on the register maintained by the competent authority under section 87R;

(c)

An investor authorised by an EEA State other than the United Kingdom to be considered as a qualified investor for the purposes of the prospectus directive.

register

register of qualified investors maintained by the FSA under section 87R of the Act.

registration document

a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

regulated information

(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.

regulated market

(a)

(as defined in article 1 of the ISD) a market for the instruments listed in Section B of the Annex to the ISD which:

  • (i) appears on the list of such markets drawn up by the market's Home State as required by article 16 of the ISD;
  • (ii) functions regularly;
  • (iii) is characterised by the fact that regulations issued or approved by the competent authorities define the conditions for the operation of the market, the conditions for access to the market and, where Directive 79/279/EEC is applicable, the conditions governing admission to listing imposed in that Directive and, where that Directive is not applicable, the conditions that must be satisfied by a financial instrument before it can effectively be dealt in on the market; and
  • (iv)requires compliance with all the reporting and transparency requirements laid down by articles 20 and 21 of the ISD; and

(b)

a market notified under article 16 of the ISD, as included in point 30b of Annex IX to the Agreement of the European Economic Area, to the Standing Committee of the EFTA States as defined in that agreement.

RIS

Regulatory Information Service.

risk factors

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.

rule

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FSA under the Act.

schedule

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.

securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner

(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.

securities note

a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

small and medium-sized enterprise

(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.

special purpose vehicle

(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.

statutory notice associated decision

a decision which is made by the FSA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:

statutory notice decision

a decision by the FSA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.

(a)

to determine or extend the period for making representations;

(b)

to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;

(c)

to refuse access to FSA material;

(d)

as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.

summary

(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.

supplementary prospectus

a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.

transferable security

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of the investment services directive, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months.

Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".

umbrella collective investment scheme

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.

United Kingdom

England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).

units of a collective investment scheme

(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.

working day

(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

SUP 11.8.1RRP
A firm must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware of any of the following matters in respect of one or more of its controllers: (1) if a controller, or any entity subject to his control, is or has been the subject of any legal action or investigation which might put into question the integrity of the controller; (2) if there is a significant deterioration in the financial position of a controller; (3) if a corporate controller undergoes a substantial change or series of
PR 1.1.1RRP
(1) 1PR 2, PR 3, PR 4.2, PR 5.1, PR 5.3.1 UK to PR 5.3.3 G and PR 5.5 only apply (subject to paragraph (2)) in relation to:(a) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, in respect of which section 85 of the Act applies (other than an exempt offer under section 86 of the Act) and in relation to which the United Kingdom is the Home State;(b) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, where under section 87 of the
LR 2.2.10RRP
(1) This rule applies if under the Act or under the law of another EEA State:(a) a prospectus must be approved and published for the securities; or(b) the applicant is permitted and elects to draw up a prospectus for the securities.(2) To be listed:(a) a prospectus must have been approved by the FSA and published in relation to the securities; or(b) if another EEA State is the Home Member State for the securities, the relevant competent authority must have supplied the FSA with:(i)
MIPRU 3.2.1RRP
A firm must take out and maintain professional indemnity insurance that is at least equal to the requirements of this section from:(1) an insurance undertaking authorised to transact professional indemnity insurance in the EEA; or(2) a person of equivalent status in:(i) a Zone A country; or(ii) the Channel Islands, Gibraltar, Bermuda or the Isle of Man.[Note: Article 4(3) of the IMD]
PERG 8.8.3GRP
Where communications by persons in another EEA State are made to or directed at persons in the United Kingdom account must be taken of the effect of any relevant EU Directives. For example, the E-Commerce Directive will, with limited exceptions, prevent the United Kingdom from imposing restrictions on incoming financial promotions in information society services. The Treasury has given effect to this through the Financial Promotion Order (see1PERG 8.12.38 G). Other potentially