Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1
21 - 40 of 313 items.
When a firm appoints a skilled person to provide a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the firm must, in a contract with the skilled person:(1) require and permit the skilled person during and after the course of his appointment:(a) to cooperate with the FSA in the discharge of its functions under the Act in relation to the firm; and(b) to communicate to the FSA information on, or his opinion on, matters of which he has, or had, become aware in
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R (1) the FSA expects that a skilled person appointed under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) will cooperate with the FSA by, amongst other things, providing information or documentation about the planning and progress of the report and its findings and conclusions, if requested to do so. A firm should therefore ensure that the contract it makes with the skilled person requires and permits the skilled person
Section 166(5) of the Act (Authority's power to require information) imposes a duty on certain persons to give assistance to a skilled person. The persons on whom this duty is imposed are those who are providing, or have at any time provided, services to any person falling within SUP 5.2.1 G. They include suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements.
(1) Under section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition), no person may carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purport to do so, unless he is an authorised person, or he is an exempt person in relation to that activity.(2) A person will be an exempt person if he satisfies the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act, guidance on which is given in SUP 12.2.2 G. A person who is exempt as a result of satisfying these conditions is referred to in the Act as an appointed
(1) A person must satisfy the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:(a) the person must not be an authorised person, that is, he must not have permission under the Act to carry on any regulated activity in his own right (section 39(1) of the Act); (b) the person must have entered into a contract with an authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:(i) permits or requires him to carry on business of
As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act; that is, it cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised for others.
(1) The Appointed Representatives Regulations are made by the Treasury under section 39(1) of the Act. These regulations describe, among other things, the business for which an appointed representative may be exempt, which is business which comprises any of:(a) dealing in investments as agent (article 21 of the Regulated Activities Order) where the transaction relates to a pure protection contract (but only where the contract is not a long-term care insurance contract) or general
(1) An introducer is an individual appointed by a firm or by an appointed representative of such a firm to carry out, in the course of designated investment business, either or both of the following activities:4(a) effecting introductions; (b) distributing non-real time financial promotions.(2) An introducer is not an exempt person under section 39 of the Act (unless he is also an introducer appointed representative) and hence cannot benefit from the exemption to carry on regulated
In determining whether a firm has complied with any provision in or under the Act such as any Principle or other rule, anything that an appointed representative has done or omitted to do as respects the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility will be treated as having been done or omitted to be done by the firm (section 39(4) of the Act ).
Alternatively, the FSA may decide to approve the proposed acquisition or increase of control subject to such conditions as it considers appropriate, having regard to the FSA's duty to ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions (section 185 of the Act).(1) If the FSA proposes to approve subject to conditions, it must give a warning notice.2(2) If the FSA decides to proceed to approve subject to conditions, it must give a decision
A notice which approves a change of control (with or without conditions) is effective only for a limited period as set out in the notice (or, if no such period is specified, for one year) (section 184(3) of the Act). An approved change in control may not therefore take place after the end of this period.
Before giving an approval notice orwarning notice , the FSAmust comply with certain requirements as to consultation with 1competent authorities outside the United Kingdom (sections 183(2) and 188(2) of the Act and the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Consultation with Competent Authorities) Regulations 2001). The Financial Groups Directive Regulations make special provision in relation to (the change in control over a UK authorised person (within the meaning of section
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But, when there is a cross-border element, for example because a customer is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
Even if a person concludes that he is not carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, he will need to ensure that he does not contravene other provisions of the Act that apply to unauthorised persons. These include the controls on financial promotion (section 21 (Financial promotion) of the Act) (see PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)), and on giving the impression that a person is authorised (section 24 (False claims to be authorised or exempt)).
Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United Kingdom
Needs Part IVpermission |
Schedule 3 EEA passport rights available |
Overseas persons exclusion available |
|
Registered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State) |
No |
Yes |
No |
Registered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border services |
No |
Yes |
Potentially available [see Note] |
Third country intermediary operating from branch in the UK |
Yes |
No |
No |
Third country intermediary providing services in (or into) the UK |
Yes unless overseas persons exclusion applies |
No |
Potentially available |
This does not, however, affect the firm'sauthorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Passporting)). |
|||
In determining the location of an activity, and hence whether it is carried on in the United Kingdom, various factors need to be taken into account in turn, notably:(1) section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom);(2) the nature of the activity; and(3) the overseas persons exclusion (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Overseas persons)).
Section 418 of the Act extends the meaning that 'carry on regulated activity in the United Kingdom' would normally have by setting out additional cases in which a person who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is to be regarded as doing so. Each of the following cases thus amounts to carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom:(1) where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity in another EEA State in the exercise
Article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order (Overseas persons) provides a potential exclusion for persons with no permanent place of business in the United Kingdom from which regulated activities are conducted or offers to conduct regulated activities are made. Where these persons carry on insurance mediation activities in the United Kingdom, they may be able to take advantage of the exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order. In general terms, these apply where
A firm authorised under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part IV permission granted by the FSA. A firm's Part IV permission specifies all or some of the following elements (as detailed in AUTH 3.3.3 G (When is Part IV permission required and what does it contain?)):(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved; and(3) if appropriate, requirements.
(1) A firm must notify the FSA of:(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies); or(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act;by (or as regards (c) against) the firm or any of its directors, officers, employees,
A firm must notify the FSA immediately if:(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, professional organisation or trade
(1) Before an EEA firm exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be included in the consent notice has been prescribed under regulation 2 of the EEA Passport Rights Regula
(1) When the FSA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator, it will, under paragraphs 13(2)(b), (c) and 13(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the applicable provisions (if any) to:(a) the EEA firm; and(b) in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Insurance Directives, the Home State regulator;within two months of the date on which the FSA received the consent notice.(2) Although the FSA is not required to notify the applicable provisions
The FSA will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FSA's power to give directions); or (3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate for the FSA to give a direction
The FSA would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be satisfiedin the following circumstances:(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act; or(3) the recognised
In addition to the factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FSA will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an overseas recognised body's compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FSA that the overseas recognised body is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying
Section 234 of the Act (Industry Funding) enables the FSA to require the payment to it or to FOS Ltd, by firms or any class of firm, of specified amounts (or amounts calculated in a specified way) to cover the costs of: (1) the Financial Ombudsman Service; and (2) its operation in relation to the Compulsory Jurisdiction.
Each of these aspects of the definition is considered in greater detail in PERG 9.4 (Collective investment scheme (section 235 of the Act)) to PERG 9.9 (The investment condition: the 'satisfaction test' (section 236(3)(b) of the Act)). Although the definition has a number of elements, the FSA considers that it requires an overall view to be taken of the body corporate. This is of particular importance in relation to the investment condition (see PERG 9.6.3 G and PERG 9.6.4 G (The
The FSA understands that the aim of the definition in section 236 of the Act is to include any body corporate which, looked at as a whole, functions as an open-ended investment vehicle. The definition operates against a background that there is a wide range of different circumstances in which any particular body corporate can be established and operated. For example, the definition applies to bodies corporate wherever they are formed. So, in the application of the definition to
For a body corporate formed outside the United Kingdom, there is an additional issue as to how the applicable corporate law and the definition of open-ended investment company in the Act relate to one another. The FSA understands this to operate as follows. The term 'body corporate' is defined in section 417(1) of the Act (Interpretation) as including 'a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom'. So, whether or not any particular
A number of controls apply under the Act to the promotion of shares or securities that are issued by any body corporate. These controls differ according to whether the person making the promotion is an unauthorised person (see PERG 9.10.2 G) or an authorised person (see PERG 9.10.3 G to PERG 9.10.6 G). In addition, where a body corporate is not an open-ended investment company:(1) the requirements of Prospectus Rules relating to the publication of an approved prospectus may1 apply
The controls under the Act that apply to promotions of shares or securities by unauthorised persons are in section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). These controls apply where an unauthorised person makes a financial promotion in, or from, the United Kingdom that relates to the shares in or securities of any body corporate. The same controls apply regardless of whether the shares or securities being promoted are issued by a body corporate that is an open-ended
Promotions made by authorised persons in the United Kingdom are generally subject to the controls in COB 3 (Financial Promotion). However, in the case of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate which is an open-ended investment company, additional controls are imposed by Chapter II of Part XVII of the Act (Restrictions on promotion of collective investment schemes) (see PERG 8.20). Section 238 of the Act (Restrictions on promotion) prevents an authorised person communicating
There are a number of other exemptions in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Promotion of Collective Investment Schemes) (Exemptions) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1060). In general terms, these exemptions are equivalent to the exemptions from section 21 of the Act that apply to units. There is guidance on those exemptions in PERG 8.20.3 G (Additional restriction on the promotion of collective investment schemes).
A person carrying on the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme that is constituted by an open-ended investment company will need permission for those activities. In line with section 237(2) of the Act (Other definitions), the operator of a collective investment scheme that is an open-ended investment company is the company itself. But where the open-ended investment company is incorporated outside the United Kingdom, it will
Any rule in the Handbook which has the status letter "E" in the margin or heading:(1) is to be taken also to provide that contravention of the rule does not give rise to any of the consequences provided for by provisions of the Act other than section 149(Evidential provisions); and(2) incorporates the status letter "E" in the margin or heading as part of the rule.
(1) The rules to which section 149of the Act applies ("evidential provisions") are identified in the Handbook by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading.(2) Other provisions in the Handbook, although also identified by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading, are actually not rules but provisions in codes and GEN 2.2.3 R does not apply to them. These code provisions are GEN 2.1.4 E, and those provisions in the Code of Practice for Approved Persons (APER 3 and APER
The application of the Interpretation Act 1978 to the Handbook has the effect, in particular, that:(1) expressions in the Handbook used in the Act have the meanings which they bear in the Act, unless the contrary intention appears;(2) where reference is made in the Handbook to an enactment, it is a reference to that enactment as amended and includes a reference to that provision as extended or applied by or under any other enactment, unless the contrary intention appears; and(3)
(1) If a firm, which is a partnership or unincorporated association, is dissolved,any firm which succeeds to the business of the dissolved firm is to be regarded as the same firm for the purposes of the Handbook .(2) For the purposes of (1), a firm is to be regarded as succeeding to the business of another firm only if:(a) the members of the resulting firm are substantially the same as those of the former firm; and(b) succession is to the whole or substantially the whole of the
In principle, it is possible to view a change of partners in a partnership, or a change in the membership of the unincorporated association, as the formation of a new partnership or association. GEN 2.2.18 R reflects section 32 of the Act (Partnerships and unincorporated associations), which provides for the continuing authorisation of partnerships and unincorporated associations following a change in partners or members GEN 2.2.18 R ensures a similar effect in relation to the
Section 341 of the Act (Access to books etc.) provides that an auditor of a firm appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R: (1) has a right of access at all times to the firm's books, accounts and vouchers; and(2) is entitled to require from the firm's officers such information and explanations as he reasonably considers necessary for the performance of his duties as auditor.
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its appointed representatives gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the appointed representative and entitlement to information and explanations from the appointed representative's officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act (see also SUP 12.5.5 R (3)).
In complying with SUP 3.6.1 R, a firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that each of its suppliers under a material outsourcing arrangement gives the firm's auditor the same rights of access to the books, accounts and vouchers of the firm held by the supplier, and entitlement to information and explanations from the supplier's officers as are given in respect of the firm by section 341 of the Act.
Firms and their officers, managers and controllers are reminded that, under section 346 of the Act (Provision of false or misleading information to auditor or actuary), knowingly or recklessly giving false information to an auditor appointed under SUP 3.3.2 R constitutes an offence in certain circumstances, which could render them liable to prosecution. This applies even when an auditor is also appointed under an obligation in another enactment.
Section 235(1) states that a collective investment scheme means any arrangements with respect to property of any description. The purpose or effect of the arrangements must be to enable the persons taking part in them to participate in or receive profits or income arising from the acquisition, holding, management or disposal of the property or sums paid out of such profits or income. The participants must not have day-to-day control over the management of the property (section
Analysing a typical corporate structure in terms of the definition of a collective investment scheme, money will be paid to the body corporate in exchange for shares or securities issued by it. The body corporate becomes the beneficial owner of that money in exchange for rights against the legal entity that is the body corporate. The body corporate then has its own duties and rights that are distinct from those of the holders of its shares or securities. Such arrangements will,
Where a body corporate does come within the definition of a collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3), the only relevant issue is to determine whether or not it is excluded. As PERG 9.2.2 G (Introduction) explains, the exclusions are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). If a body corporate satisfies any of the exclusions
In the FSA's view, the question of what constitutes a single scheme in line with section 235(4) of the Act does not arise in relation to a body corporate. This is simply because the body corporate is itself a collective investment scheme (and so is a single scheme). Section 235(4) contemplates a 'separate' pooling of parts of the property that is subject to the arrangements referred to in section 235(1). But to analyse a body corporate in this way requires looking through its
A UK firm cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to breach this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act).The conditions are that:(1) the
If a UK firm has given the FSA a notice of intention in the required form, then:(1) if the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Investment Services Directive, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State Regulator within one month of receipt; or(2) (a) if the UK firm'sEEA right derives from theInsurance Directives, paragraph 20(3A) of
Section 34 of the Act states that an incoming EEA firm no longer qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act if it ceases to be an incoming EEA firm as a result of:(1) having its EEA authorisation withdrawn by its Home State regulator; or(2) ceasing to have an EEA right in circumstances in which EEA authorisation is not required; this is relevant to a financial institution that is a subsidiary of a credit institution (of the kind mentioned in Article 19of the Banking
Section 36 of the Act states that a UCITS qualifier may ask the FSA to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5 to the Act. UCITS qualifiers should also refer to COLLG 3.1.11 Gand CIS 17.4.8 G (Revocation of recognition: Schemes recognised under section 264 of the Act).1
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing
particulars) requires listing particulars submitted
to the FSA to contain all such information as investors
and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect
to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial
position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of
the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
(1) The listing
particulars must contain a summary that
complies with the requirements in section 87A(5) and (6) of the Act and PR 2.1.4 EU to PR 2.1.7 R (as if those requirements
applied to the listing particulars).(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply:(a) in relation to specialist
securities referred to in LR 4.1.1R (2);
or(b) if, in accordance with PR 2.1.3 R,
no summary would be required
in relation to the securities.
A request to the FSA to authorise the omission of specific
information in a particular case must:(1) be in writing from the issuer;(2) identify the specific information
concerned and the specific reasons for the omission; and(3) state why in the issuer's opinion
one or more of the grounds in section 82 of the Act applies.
SUP 14.6 (Cancelling qualification for authorisation), which sets out how to cancel qualification for authorisation under the Act, also applies to:(1) an incoming Treaty firm that qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act; and(2) a UCITS qualifier that is an authorised person under Schedule 5 to the Act; a UCITS qualifier should, however, refer to COLL 9.4.2 R and CIS for full details of applicable rules and guidance.2
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive.(2) A Gibraltar insurance companyis allowed to passport its services into the United Kingdom if it complieswith the relevant notification procedures. Similarly, a Gibraltar credit institution is allowed to
This chapter gives guidance on the Act and the EEA Passport Rights Regulations made under the Act, for an incoming EEA firm which has established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, the United Kingdom and wishes to change the details of the branch or cross border services. These are known as requisite details, or for firms passporting under the Insurance Directives relevant details.
The FSA uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the FSA. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the FSA has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the FSA may include persons who are not FSA staff, but who have
In complying with Principle 11, the FSA considers that a firm should, in relation to the discharge by the FSA of its functions under the Act:(1) make itself readily available for meetings with representatives or appointees of the FSA as reasonably requested;(2) give representatives or appointees of the FSA reasonable access to any records, files, tapes or computer systems, which are within the firm's possession or control, and provide any facilities which the representatives
(1) A firm must permit representatives of the FSA, or persons appointed for the purpose by the FSA, to have access, with or without notice, during reasonable business hours to any of its business premises in relation to the discharge of the FSA's functions under the Act.(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that its agents, suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements and appointed representatives permit such access to their business premises. (See also, in respect