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DISP 2.1 Purpose, interpretation and application

Purpose

DISP 2.1.1 G RP

The purpose of this chapter is to set out rules and guidance on the scope of the Compulsory Jurisdiction and the Voluntary Jurisdiction, which are the Financial Ombudsman Service's two 819jurisdictions:

8 19 8 19
  1. (1)

    the Compulsory Jurisdiction is not restricted to regulated activities,718payment services6 , 9 issuance ofelectronic money, 718 and CBTL business 9 and covers:

    9
    1. (a)

      certain complaints against firms (and businesses which were firms at the time of the events complained about);

      819
    2. (b)

      relevant complaints against former members of former schemes under the Ombudsman Transitional Order, the Mortgage and General Insurance Complaints Transitional Order,14 the Claims Management Order and the Funeral Plans Order14;

      1210819
    3. (c)

      relevant credit-related complaints against businesses which were, at the time of the events complained about, covered by a standard licence under the Consumer Credit Act 1974, or formerly authorised to carry on an activity by virtue of section 34(A) of that Act, in accordance with article 11 of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order;11819

      10
    4. (d)

      certain complaints against designated credit reference agencies under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Credit Information) Regulations; and11

      10
    5. (e)

      11certain complaints against designated finance platforms under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations;

  2. (2)

    [deleted]819

    819
  3. (3)

    the Voluntary Jurisdiction covers certain complaints against VJ participants, including in relation to events before they joined the Voluntary Jurisdiction.417

DISP 2.1.2 G RP

Relevant complaints covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction comprise:

4 17
  1. (1)

    relevant existing complaints referred to a former scheme before commencement and inherited by the Financial Ombudsman Service under the Ombudsman Transitional Order;

  2. (2)

    relevant new complaints about events before commencement but referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service after commencement under the Ombudsman Transitional Order;

    819
  3. (3)

    relevant transitional complaints referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service after the relevant commencement date under the Mortgages and General Insurance Complaints Transitional Order; 417

  4. (4)

    relevant existing credit-related complaints referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 1 April 2014 which were formerly being dealt with under the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction and which are to be dealt with under the Compulsory Jurisdiction in accordance with article 11 of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order;12

    819
  5. (5)

    relevant new credit-related complaints about events which took place before 1 April 2014 but referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or after 1 April 2014 which are to be dealt with under the Compulsory Jurisdiction in accordance with article 11 of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order;12

    819
  6. (6)

    relevant existing claims management complaints referred to the Legal Ombudsman before 1 April 2019 and inherited by the Financial Ombudsman Service under the Claims Management Order; 14

    12
  7. (7)

    relevant new claims management complaints about events which took place before 1 April 2019 but referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or after 1 April 2019 under the Claims Management Order; and14

    12
  8. (8)

    14relevant transitional funeral plan complaints about events which took place before 29 July 2022 but were referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or after 29 July 2022 in accordance with article 7 of the Funeral Plans Order.

DISP 2.1.3 G RP

The Ombudsman Transitional Order and the Claims Management Order12 requires the Financial Ombudsman Service to complete the handling of relevant existing complaints and relevant existing claims management complaints12, in a significant number of respects, in accordance with the requirements of the relevant former scheme rather than in accordance with the requirements of this chapter.417

Interpretation

DISP 2.1.4 G RP

In this chapter, carrying on an activity includes:417

4 17
  1. (1)

    417 offering, providing or failing to provide a service in relation to an activity;417

  2. (2)

    administering or failing to administer a service in relation to an activity; and417

    3417
  3. (3)

    the manner in which a respondent has administered its business, provided that the business is an activity subject to the Financial Ombudsman Service's jurisdiction.417

    417

Purpose

DISP 2.1.5 G RP

In this chapter, ancillary banking services include, for example, the provision and operation of cash machines, foreign currency exchange, safe deposit boxes and account aggregation services (services where details of accounts held with different financial service providers can be accessed by a single password).417

4 17

Application

DISP 2.1.6 R RP

4 17This chapter applies to the Ombudsman and to respondents.

DISP 2.1.6A R

13This chapter applies to any TP firm who is or was, at the time of the act or omission, giving rise to the claim against it, a TP firm. This rule demonstrates the contrary intention under GEN 2.2.26R.

Application to the Ombudsman and respondents in relation to a relevant motor finance discretionary commission arrangement complaint

DISP 2.1.6B R

15In relation to a relevant motor finance DCA complaint:

  1. (1)

    DISP 2.8.1R(2);

  2. (2)

    DISP 2.8.1R(4)(a); and

  3. (3)

    DISP 2.8.2R(1),

apply as modified by DISP App 5 (Relevant motor finance discretionary commission arrangement complaint handling rules).

DISP 2.1.6C G
DISP 2.1.7 D RP

4 17 Part XVI of the Act (The Ombudsman Scheme), particularly section 226 (Compulsory jurisdiction),5 applies to members of theSociety of Lloyd's5 in respect of the regulated activities of effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance written at Lloyd's.

5 5

DISP 2.2 Which complaints can be dealt with under the Financial Ombudsman Service?

DISP 2.2.1 G RP

The scope of the Financial Ombudsman Service's two 37jurisdictions depends on:26

2 6 3 7
  1. (1)

    the type of activity to which the complaint relates (see DISP 2.3, DISP 2.4 and DISP 2.5);

  2. (2)

    the place where the activity to which the complaint relates was carried on (see DISP 2.6);

  3. (3)

    whether the complainant is eligible (see DISP 2.7); and

  4. (4)

    whether the complaint was referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service in time (see DISP 2.8).

DISP 2.2.2 G RP

4 8The effect of section 234B of the Act is that where a person (a “successor”) has assumed a liability (including a contingent one) of another person who was, or would have been the respondent in respect of a complaint, the complaint may be dealt with by the Ombudsman as if the successor were the respondent.

DISP 2.3 To which activities does the Compulsory Jurisdiction apply?

7Activities by firms

DISP 2.3.1 R RP

7The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it relates to an act or omission by a firm in carrying on one or more of the following activities:

  1. (1)

    regulated activities (other than auction regulation bidding, administering a benchmark and dealing with unwanted asset money27);

    20221023
  2. (1A)

    payment services;7

  3. (1B)

    [deleted]13

    12
  4. (1C)

    CBTL business;

    14
  5. (2)

    [deleted]1132

    1132
  6. (3)

    lending money secured by a charge on land;

  7. (4)

    lending money (excluding restricted credit where that is not a credit-related regulated activity1132 );

    1132
  8. (5)

    paying money by a plastic card (excluding a store card where that is not a credit-related regulated activity1132 );

    1132
  9. (6)

    providing ancillary banking services;

  10. (7)

    offering and/or issuing of investments by ISPVs;19

  11. (8)

    18giving non-personal recommendation advice;

or any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the firm in connection with them.630

DISP 2.3.1A R RP

17The Ombudsman can also consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it relates to an act or omission by:

  1. (1)

    an investment firm authorised under the UK provisions which implemented22MiFID when providing investment services or ancillary services;

  2. (2)

    a CRD credit institution when providing one or more investment services;

  3. (3)

    an investment firm authorised under the UK provisions which implemented22MiFID or a CRD credit institution when selling structured deposits to clients, or advising clients on them;

  4. (4)

    a collective portfolio management investment firm when providing the activities permitted by the UK provisions which implemented22 article 6(3) of the UCITS Directive; and

  5. (5)

    a collective portfolio management investment firm when providing the activities permitted by the UK provisions which implemented22 article 6(4) of the AIFMD.

[Note: see article 1(1), 1(3) and 1(4) and article 75 of MiFID, and articles 1 and 26(5) of the MiFID Org Regulation]

DISP 2.3.1B G RP

17For the purposes of DISP 2.3.1AR, the Ombudsman can consider a complaint about an act carried out by a MiFID investment firm that is preparatory to the provision of an investment service or ancillary service which is an integral part of such a service. This includes, for example, generic advice given by a MiFID investment firm to a client prior to, or in the course of, the provision of investment advice or another investment service or ancillary service.

[Note: recitals 15 and 16 of the MiFID Org Regulation]

7Activities by firms and unauthorised persons subject to a former scheme

DISP 2.3.2 G RP

The Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction:630

6 30
  1. (1)

    as a result of the Ombudsman Transitional Order, a relevant existing complaint or a relevant new complaint that relates to an act or omission by a firm or an unauthorised person which was subject to a former scheme immediately before commencement;21

  2. (2)

    as a result of the Mortgages and General Insurance Complaints Transitional Order, a relevant transitional complaint that relates to an act or omission by a firm (or an unauthorised person that ceased to be a firm after the relevant commencement date) which was subject to a former scheme at the time of the act or omission; or21

  3. (2A)

    as a result of the Claims Management Order, a relevant claims management complaint that relates to an act or omission by a firm or an unauthorised person which was subject to a former scheme at the time of the act or omission;21

  1. (2B)

    24as a result of the Funeral Plans Order, a relevant transitional funeral plan complaint that relates to an act or omission by a firm or unauthorised person which was subject to a former scheme at the time of the act or omission.26

The Ombudsman may only consider a type of complaint referred to in (1) to (2B) if:26

  1. (3)

    the act or omission occurred in the carrying on by that firm or unauthorised person of an activity to which that former scheme applied; and

  2. (4)

    the complainant is eligible and wishes to have the complaint dealt with by the Ombudsman.

    7

Activities by firms and unauthorised persons previously subject to the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction

DISP 2.3.2-A G RP

11 32In accordance with article 11 of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction:

  1. (1)

    a relevant existing credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 1 April 2014 which was formerly being dealt with under the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction; and

  2. (2)

    a relevant new credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or after 1 April 2014 which relates to an act or omission which took place before 1 April 2014;

    provided that:

    1. (a)

      the complaint could have been dealt with under the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction (disregarding whether the complainant would have been eligible under rules made for the purposes of the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction and whether the complaint would have fallen within a description specified in those rules) but for the repeal of section 226A of the Act; and

    2. (b)

      the complainant is eligible and wishes to have the complaint dealt with under the Financial Ombudsman Service.

Activities by payment service providers

DISP 2.3.2A R RP

7The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it relates to an act or omission by a payment service provider in carrying on:

  1. (1)

    payment services; or

  2. (2)

    credit-related regulated activities;1132

    1132

or any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the payment service provider in connection with them.

Activities by electronic money issuers

DISP 2.3.2B R RP

9 31The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it relates to an act or omission by an electronic money issuer in carrying on:

  1. (1)

    issuance of electronic money; or

  2. (2)

    credit-related regulated activities;1132

    1132

or any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the electronic money issuer in connection with them.

Activities by CBTL firms

DISP 2.3.2BA R RP

The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it relates to an act or omission by a CBTL firm in carrying on CBTL business or any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the CBTL firm in connection with its CBTL business.

14

Consumer redress schemes

DISP 2.3.2C G RP

8As a result of section 404B(11) of the Act, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction a complaint from a complainant who:

  1. (1)

    is not satisfied with a redress determination made by a respondent under a consumer redress scheme; or

  2. (2)

    considers that a respondent has failed to make a redress determination in accordance with a consumer redress scheme.

Activities by designated credit reference agencies

DISP 2.3.2D R RP

15The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it relates to an act or omission by a designated credit reference agency in carrying on:

  1. (1)

    the activity of providing credit information under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Credit Information) Regulations; or

  2. (2)

    any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the designated credit reference agency in connection with the activity in (1).

Activities by designated finance platforms

DISP 2.3.2E R RP

16The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it relates to an act or omission by a designated finance platform in carrying on:

  1. (1)

    the activity of providing specified information under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations; or

  2. (2)

    any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the designated finance platform in connection with the activity in (1).

General

DISP 2.3.3 G RP
DISP 2.3.4 R RP

A complaint about an authorisedprofessional firm cannot be handled under the Compulsory Jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service if it relates solely to a non-mainstream regulated activity and can be handled by a designated professional body.630

DISP 2.3.5 G RP

7The Compulsory Jurisdiction includes complaints about the UK end of 'one leg' payment services transactions, i.e. services provided from UK establishments that also involve a payment service provider located outside the EEA. The Compulsory Jurisdiction also includes complaints about payment services irrespective of the currency of the transaction.

DISP 2.3.6 G

25Schedule 6A to the Act sets out a procedure to enable the FCA to cancel or vary the Part 4A permission of a person who, it appears to the FCA, is not carrying on the regulated activity to which the Part 4A permission relates. In some cases, this may result in the person no longer being a respondent following cancellation of all their Part 4A permissions. Paragraph 5 of Schedule 6A to the Act sets out a procedure for the subsequent annulment of the decision to cancel or vary the person’s Part 4A permission in specified circumstances where the FCA is satisfied that it is just and reasonable to do so. Where the FCA grants an application for annulment, either with conditions or unconditionally, paragraph 6 of Schedule 6A to the Act sets out its effect, which includes that the cancellation or variation of the Part 4A permission is treated as if it had never taken place. As a result of the effect of the annulment, the person may therefore be a respondent for the purposes of any complaints which arise during the period in which the person’s Part 4A permission was cancelled or varied.

DISP 2.5 To which activities does the Voluntary Jurisdiction apply?

DISP 2.5.1 R RP

The Ombudsman can consider a complaint under the Voluntary Jurisdiction if:427

  1. (1)

    it is not covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction;831 and

    427
  2. (2)

    it relates to an act or omission by a VJ participant in carrying on one or more of the following activities:

    1. (a)

      an activity (other than auction regulation bidding,23administering a benchmark, meeting of repayment claims,23managing dormant asset funds (including the investment of such funds) and regulated pensions dashboard activity23) carried on after 28 April 1988 which:

      192135
      1. (i)

        was not a regulated activity at the time of the act or omission, but

      2. (ii)

        was a regulated activity when the VJ participant joined the Voluntary Jurisdiction (or became an authorised person, if later);

    2. (b)

      a financial services activity carried on after commencement by a VJ participant which was covered in respect of that activity by a former scheme immediately before the commencement day;

    3. (c)

      activities, other than regulated claims management activities, activities ancillary to regulated claims management activities, meeting of repayment claims,23managing dormant asset funds (including the investment of such funds) and regulated pensions dashboard activity23, which (at 30 November 202423) would be covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction,30 if they were carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom (these activities are listed in DISP 2 Annex 1G);

      222117352872972983132932933331011121314103430151920183618161530
    4. (ca)

      an activity which would be a regulated claims management activity and would be covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it were carried on in Great Britain (see PERG 2.4A);15

    5. (cb)

      20an activity which would be a regulated funeral plan activity and would be covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction if it were carried on in relation to a funeral in the United Kingdom.

    6. (d)

      [deleted]831

      831
    7. (e)

      lending money secured by a charge on land;

    8. (f)

      lending money (excluding restricted credit where that is not a credit-related regulated activity831 );

      831
    9. (g)

      paying money by a plastic card (excluding a store card where that is not a credit-related regulated activity831 );

      831
    10. (h)

      providing ancillary banking services;

    11. (i)

      acting as an intermediary for a loan secured by a charge over land;

    12. (j)

      acting as an intermediary for general insurance business or long-term insurance business;

    13. (k)

      National Savings and Investments' business;

    14. (l)

      offering and/or issuing of investments by ISPVs;14

      3030
    15. (m)

      [deleted]30

      30

or any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the VJ participant in connection with them.

4 27
DISP 2.5.2 G RP

The scope of the Voluntary Jurisdiction is wider than that of the Compulsory Jurisdiction, and so some activities are referred to in both jurisdictions.

1 24 1 24 4 27
DISP 2.5.3 G RP

DISP 2.5.1R (2)(a) is for those that are subject to the Compulsory Jurisdiction for regulated activities but are not covered by any of the following:20

2 4 27 15 4 27
  1. (a)

    20the Ombudsman Transitional Order,

  2. (b)

    20the Mortgage and General Insurance Complaints Transitional Order,

  3. (c)

    20the Claims Management Order, or

  4. (d)

    20the Funeral Plans Order.

20It enables the Financial Ombudsman Scheme to cover complaints about earlier events relating to those activities before they became regulated activities.

DISP 2.5.4 G RP

DISP 2.5.1R (2)(b) is for those that were members of one of the former schemes replaced by the Financial Ombudsman Service immediately before commencement. It enables the Financial Ombudsman Service5 to cover complaints that arise out of acts or omissions occurring after commencement for any activities which are not covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction but that would have been covered by the relevant former scheme.427

5
DISP 2.5.4A G RP

DISP 2.5.1R(2)(c) 17 includes complaints about the EEA end of 'one leg' payment services transactions, i.e. services provided from EEA establishments that are subject to the territorial jurisdiction of the Voluntary Jurisdiction (see DISP 2.6.4R (2)) that also involve a payment service provider located outside the EEA. It also includes complaints about payment services irrespective of the currency of the transaction.

6
DISP 2.5.5 R RP

4 27The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers an act or omission that occurred before the VJ participant was participating in the Voluntary Jurisdiction, and whether the act or omission occurred before or after commencement, either:

  1. (1)

    if the complaint could have been dealt with under a former scheme; or

  2. (2)

    under the agreement by the VJ participant in the Standard Terms.

DISP 2.6 What is the territorial scope of the relevant jurisdiction?

Compulsory Jurisdiction

DISP 2.6.1 R RP
  1. (1)

    The Compulsory Jurisdiction covers complaints about the activities of a firm (including its appointed representatives), of a payment service provider (including agents of a payment institution), of an electronic money issuer (including agents of an electronic money institution), of a CBTL firm, of a designated credit reference agency or of a designated finance platform which:1615

    71111141214121411167
    1. (a)

      (except for regulated claims management activities and activities ancillary to regulated claims management activities) are carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom; or1615

      16
    2. (b)

      are carried on from an establishment in an EEA State, in the case of a TP firm, a TA EMI firm, a TA PI firm or a TA RAISP firm with respect to services provided into the United Kingdom; or16

      1615
    3. (c)

      are, or are ancillary to, regulated claims management activities.16

  2. (2)

    [deleted]16

    79979
  3. (3)

    [deleted]

  4. (4)

    [deleted]

  5. (5)

    [deleted]

  6. (6)

    [deleted]

5 19
DISP 2.6.2 G RP

[deleted]16

5 19
DISP 2.6.2A G

15For an activity to amount to a regulated claims management activity it must be carried on in Great Britain (see PERG 2.4A). The application of the Compulsory Jurisdiction to firms which carry on regulated claims management activities (and activities ancillary to regulated claims management activities) depends on whether the activity is carried on in Great Britain rather than whether it is carried on from an establishment maintained in the United Kingdom.

Voluntary Jurisdiction

DISP 2.6.4 R RP

The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519

  1. (1)

    in the United Kingdom; or

  2. (2)

    in the EEA or Gibraltar16 if the following conditions are met:

    1. (a)

      the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);

    2. (b)

      contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and

    3. (c)

      the VJ participant has notified appropriate regulators in the place in which the establishment is located16 of its intention to participate in the Voluntary Jurisdiction.

DISP 2.6.4A G

15 Complaints about activities which are claims management services but which are not regulated claims management activity (for example, services provided by a company incorporated in Northern Ireland to a natural person ordinarily resident in Northern Ireland) may be covered by the Voluntary Jurisdiction under DISP 2.6.4R(1) where the activities are carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom.

DISP 2.6.4B G

17Complaints about activities which would be regulated funeral plan activities but which are not regulated funeral plan activities because, for example, the services are carried on in relation to a funeral outside of the United Kingdom, may be covered by the Voluntary Jurisdiction under DISP 2.5.1R(2)(cb).

Location of the complainant

DISP 2.6.5 G RP

A complaint can be dealt with under the Financial Ombudsman Service whether or not the complainant lives or is based in the United Kingdom.519

5 19
5 19

DISP 2.7 Is the complainant eligible?

DISP 2.7.1 R RP

A complaint may only be dealt with under the Financial Ombudsman Service if it is brought by or on behalf of an eligible complainant.127

1 27
DISP 2.7.2 R RP

A complaint may be brought on behalf of an eligible complainant (or a deceased person who would have been an eligible complainant) by a person authorised by the eligible complainant or authorised by law. It is immaterial whether the person authorised to act on behalf of an eligible complainant is himself an eligible complainant.127

Eligible complainants

DISP 2.7.3 R RP

An eligible complainant must be a person that is:127

  1. (1)

    a consumer3; or19

    3
  2. (2)

    a micro-enterprise3 ;

    3
    1. (a)

      3in relation to a complaint relating wholly or partly to payment services, either at the time of the conclusion of the payment service contract or at the time the complainant refers the complaint to the respondent; or

    2. (b)

      otherwise, at the time the complainant refers the complaint to the respondent; or19

  3. (3)

    a charity which has an annual income of less than £6.519 million at the time the complainant refers the complaint to the respondent; or19

    10
  4. (4)

    a trustee of a trust which has a net asset value of less than £519 million at the time the complainant refers the complaint to the respondent; or10

    10
  5. (5)

    (in relation to CBTL business) a CBTL consumer; or19

    10
  6. (6)

    a small business at the time the complainant refers the complaint to the respondent; or19

  7. (7)

    a guarantor.19

DISP 2.7.4 G RP
1 27

In determining whether an enterprise19 meets the tests for being a micro-enterprise or a small business19, account should be taken of the enterprise’s 'partner enterprises' or 'linked enterprises' (as those terms are defined in the Micro-enterprise Recommendation). For example, where a parent company holds a majority shareholding in a complainant, if the parent company does not meet the tests for being a micro-enterprise or a small business19 then neither will the complainant.

[Note: articles19 1 and 3 to 619 of the Annex to the Micro-enterprise Recommendation].127

3
DISP 2.7.5 G RP

If a respondent is in doubt about the eligibility of a business, charity or trust, it should treat the complainant as if it were eligible. If the complaint is referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service, the Ombudsman will determine eligibility by reference to appropriate evidence, such as audited accounts or VAT returns.127

DISP 2.7.5A R

19A guarantor shall be an eligible complainant only to the extent that their complaint arises from matters relevant to the relationship with the respondent referred to in DISP 2.7.6R(10).

DISP 2.7.6 R RP

To be an eligible complainant a person must also have a complaint which arises from matters relevant to one or more of the following relationships with the respondent:127

  1. (1)

    the complainant is (or was) a customer,629payment service user3 or electronic money holder629 of the respondent;

  2. (2)

    the complainant is (or was) a potential customer,629payment service user3 or electronic money holder629 of the respondent;

  3. (2A)

    the complainant is (or was) a payer in a payment transaction in relation to which the respondent is (or was) the payee’spayment service provider, provided the complaint relates to the respondent’s obligations under regulation 90(3) of the Payment Services Regulations;18

  4. (2B)

    the complainant is a person that has transferred funds as a result of an alleged authorised push payment fraud and both:18

    1. (a)

      the respondent is (or was) involved in the transfer of the funds; and18

    2. (b)

      the complaint is not a PSD complaint;18

  5. (3)

    the complainant is the holder, or the beneficial owner, of units in a collective investment scheme and the respondent is:731

    731
    1. (a)

      the operator of a scheme;731 or12

    2. (b)

      the depositary of an authorised fund; or731

    3. (c)

      the depositary of a charity AIF;731 or12

    4. (d)

      [deleted]24

      2012
  6. (3A)

    the complainant is the holder, or the beneficial owner, of units or shares in an AIF that is not a collective investment scheme12 where the respondent is:731

    1. (a)

      the AIFM of an unauthorised AIF (other than a body corporate);731 or12

    2. (b)

      [deleted]24

      2012731
    3. (c)

      the AIFM or depositary of a charity AIF (other than a body corporate)12;731

  7. (4)

    the complainant is a beneficiary of, or has a beneficial interest in, a personal pension scheme or stakeholder pension scheme;

  8. (5)

    the complainant is a person for whose benefit a contract of insurance was taken out or was intended to be taken out with or through the respondent;

  9. (6)

    the complainant is a person on whom the legal right to benefit from a claim against the respondent under a contract of insurance has been devolved by contract, assignment, subrogation or legislation (save the European Community (Rights against Insurers) Regulations 2002);

  10. (7)

    the complainant relied in the course of his business on a cheque guarantee card issued by the respondent;

  11. (8)

    the complainant is the true owner or the person entitled to immediate possession of a cheque or other bill of exchange, or of the funds it represents, collected by the respondent for someone else's account;

  12. (9)

    the complainant is the recipient of a banker's reference given by the respondent;

  13. (10)

    the complainant gave the respondent a guarantee or security for:

    1. (a)

      a mortgage;

    2. (b)

      a loan;

    3. (c)

      an actual or prospective regulated credit agreement;832

      832
    4. (d)

      an actual or prospective regulated consumer hire agreement; or

    5. (e)

      any linked transaction as defined in the Consumer Credit Act 1974 (as amended);

  14. (11)

    the complainant is a person about whom information relevant to his financial standing is or was held by the respondent in providing credit references;832

    832
  15. (11A)

    the complainant is a person about whom information relevant to his financial standing is or was held by the respondent in providing credit information; 11

  16. (11B)

    13the complainant is a person about whom specified information was provided to a person in relation to a finance application;

  17. (12)

    the complainant is a person:282

    282
    1. (a)

      from whom the respondent has sought to recover payment under acredit agreement or consumer hire agreement832 (whether or not the respondent is a party to the agreement); or305282

      832305
    2. (b)

      in relation to whom the respondent has sought to perform duties, or exercise or enforce rights, on behalf of the creditor or owner, under acredit agreement or consumer hire agreement832 in carrying on debt administration;832282

      832832
  18. (13)

    the complainant is a beneficiary under a trust or estate of which the respondent is trustee or personal representative;4

  19. (14)

    (where the respondent is a dormant asset fund operator22) the complainant is (or was) a customer629 of a bank or building society which transferred any balance from a dormant asset22 to the respondent; 4

    629
  20. (14A)

    (where the respondent is a dormant asset fund operator) subject to DISP 2.7.6AR(1)23, the complainant is (or was) a person to whom the proceeds of a long-term insurance contract were payable by an insurer, but which instead were transferred by the insurer to the respondent;22

  21. (14B)

    (where the respondent is a dormant asset fund operator) subject to DISP 2.7.6BR, the complainant is (or was) a member of a personal pension scheme which transferred any eligible pension benefits due to the complainant to the respondent;22

  22. (14C)

    (where the respondent is a dormant asset fund operator) the complainant is (or was) a person to whom an eligible CIS amount was owing immediately before it was transferred to the respondent by the authorised fund manager or depositary of an authorised fund;23

  23. (14D)

    (where the respondent is a dormant asset fund operator) subject to DISP 2.7.6AR(2), the complainant is (or was) a person for whom a firm was holding client money immediately before it was transferred to the respondent by that firm;23

  24. (15)

    the complainant is either a borrower or a lender under a P2P agreement and the respondent is the operator of an electronic system in relation to lending;25

    832
  25. (16)

    15the complainant is a client (where the respondent is an ISPV);25

  26. (17)

    the complainant is a customer of the respondent in relation to regulated claims management activity;25

    17
  27. (18)

    25the complainant is a customer of the respondent in relation to regulated pensions dashboard activity.

DISP 2.7.6A R
  1. (1)

    DISP 2.7.6R (14A) does not include proceeds of a contract of insurance held in a lifetime ISA if their transfer to a dormant asset fund operator resulted in (or would result in) liability to pay a lifetime ISA government withdrawal charge.23

  2. (2)

    DISP 2.7.6R(14D) does not include client money held in a lifetime ISA if its transfer to a dormant asset fund operator resulted in (or would result in) liability to pay a lifetime ISA government withdrawal charge.23

22
DISP 2.7.6B R

Benefits under a personal pension scheme in DISP 2.7.6R(14B) are excluded from being ‘eligible pension benefits’ if (or to the extent that) they are provided from sums invested in a with-profits fund.22

DISP 2.7.7 G RP
1 27
  1. (1)

    12718DISP 2.7.6R (5)and DISP 2.7.6R (6) include, for example, employees covered by a group permanent health policy taken out by an employer, which provides in the insurance contract that the policy was taken out for the benefit of the employee.

  2. (2)

    DISP 2.7.6R(2B) includes any complaint that the respondent did not do enough to prevent, or respond to, an alleged authorised push payment fraud. 18

DISP 2.7.7A R

16In addition, an individual is an eligible complainant if:

  1. (1)

    they have been identified by the respondent as a politically exposed person, a family member of a politically exposed person, or a known close associate of a politically exposed person; and

  2. (2)

    their complaint:

    1. (a)

      is that such identification is incorrect; or

    2. (b)

      relates to an act or omission by the respondent in consequence of such identification.

DISP 2.7.8 G RP

1 27In the Compulsory Jurisdiction, under the Ombudsman Transitional Order, the Mortgages and General Insurance Complaints Transitional Order, Claims Management Order and the Funeral Plans Order21, where a complainant:

17
  1. (1)

    wishes to have a relevant new complaint, a relevant transitional complaint a relevant new claims management complaint, or a relevant transitional funeral plan complaint21 dealt with by the Ombudsman; and

    17
  2. (2)

    is not otherwise eligible; but

  3. (3)

    would have been entitled to refer an equivalent complaint to the former scheme in question immediately before the relevant17 order came into effect;

if the Ombudsman considers it appropriate, he may treat the complainant as an eligible complainant.

Exceptions

DISP 2.7.9 R RP

1 27The following are not eligible complainants:

  1. (1)

    (in all jurisdictions) a firm, payment service provider,3electronic money issuer, 629CBTL firm, designated credit reference agency, designated finance platform13 or VJ participant whose complaint relates in any way to an activity which:

    8321110
    1. (a)

      the firm itself has permission to carry on; or

    2. (ab)

      3the firm,629payment service provider, 10electronic money issuer,11CBTL firm,13designated credit reference agency11 or designated finance platform13 itself is entitled to carry on under the Payment Services Regulations,11 the Electronic Money Regulations,11 the MCD Order,13 the Small and Medium Sized Business (Credit Information) Regulations11or the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations13; or629

      62910629101010
    3. (b)

      the VJ participant itself conducts;

      832

and which is subject to the Compulsory Jurisdiction or the Voluntary Jurisdiction;

8 32
  1. (2)

    (in the Compulsory Jurisdiction) a complainant, other than a trustee of a pension scheme trust, who was:

    1. (a)

      a professional client; or

    2. (b)

      an eligible counterparty;

    in relation to the firm and activity in question at the time of the act or omission which is the subject of the complaint.14

  2. (3)

    [deleted]832

DISP 2.7.9A R RP

9 33 DISP 2.7.9 R (1) and DISP 2.7.9 R (2) do not apply to a complainant who is a consumer in relation to the activity to which the complaint relates.

DISP 2.7.10 G RP

1 27In the Compulsory Jurisdiction, in relation to relevant new complaints under the Ombudsman Transitional Order and relevant transitional complaints under the Mortgages and General Insurance Complaints Transitional Order:

  1. (1)

    where the former scheme in question is the Insurance Ombudsman Scheme, a complainant is not to be treated as an eligible complainant unless:

    1. (a)

      he is an individual; and

    2. (b)

      the relevant new complaint does not concern aspects of a policy relating to a business or trade carried on by him;

  2. (2)

    where the former scheme in question is the GISC facility, a complainant is not to be treated as an eligible complainant unless:

    1. (a)

      he is an individual; and

    2. (b)

      he is acting otherwise than solely for the purposes of his business; and

  3. (3)

    where the former scheme in question is the MCAS scheme, a complainant is not to be treated as an eligible complainant if:

    1. (a)

      the relevant transitional complaint does not relate to a breach of the Mortgage Code published by the Council of Mortgage Lenders;

    2. (b)

      the complaint concerns physical injury, illness, nervous shock or their consequences; or

    3. (c)

      the complainant is claiming a sum of money that exceeds £100,000.

DISP 2.8 Was the complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service in time?

General time limits6

DISP 2.8.1 R RP

1 9The Ombudsman can only consider a complaint if:

  1. (1)

    the respondent has already sent the complainant its final response or summary resolution communication; or512

    12
  2. (2)

    in relation to a complaint that is not an EMD complaint or a PSD complaint,8 eight weeks have elapsed since the respondent received the complaint; or3

  3. (2A)

    in relation to a complaint that is an EMD complaint or a PSD complaint:8

    1. (a)

      15 business days have elapsed since the respondent received the complaint and the complainant has not received a holding response as described in DISP 1.6.2A R(2)(a); or8

    2. (b)

      where the complainant has received a holding response, 35 business days have elapsed since the respondent received the complaint; or8

  4. (3)

    in relation to a complaint the subject matter of which falls to be dealt with (or has properly been dealt with) under a consumer redress scheme:3

    1. (a)

      the respondent has already sent the complainant its redress determination under the scheme; or3

    2. (b)

      the respondent has failed to send a redress determination in accordance with the time limits specified under the scheme;411

      3

    unless:411

  5. (4)

    the respondent consents and:

    1. (a)

      the Ombudsman has informed the complainant that the respondent must deal with the complaint within eight weeks (or for EMD complaints and PSD complaints 15 business days or, in exceptional circumstances, 35 business days)8 and that it may resolve the complaint8 more quickly than the Ombudsman; and

    2. (b)

      the complainant nevertheless wishes the Ombudsman to deal with the complaint.411

DISP 2.8.1A R RP

8Where a respondent has chosen to treat a complaint in its entirety in accordance with DISP 1.6.2AR, notwithstanding that parts of it fall outside DISP 1.6.2AR, DISP 2.8 will apply as if the whole complaint were an EMD complaint or a PSD complaint.

DISP 2.8.2 R RP

1 9The Ombudsman cannot consider a complaint if the complainant refers it to the Financial Ombudsman Service:

  1. (1)

    more than six months after the date on which the respondent sent the complainant its final response, 512redress determination or summary resolution communication512; or3

  2. (2)

    more than:

    1. (a)

      six years after the event complained of; or (if later)

    2. (b)

      three years from the date on which the complainant became aware (or ought reasonably to have become aware) that he had cause for complaint;

    unless the complainant referred the complaint to the respondent or to the Ombudsman within that period and has a written acknowledgement or some other record of the complaint having been received;

unless:

  1. (3)

    in the view of the Ombudsman, the failure to comply with the time limits in DISP 2.8.2 R or DISP 2.8.7 R210 was as a result of exceptional circumstances; or

  2. (4)

    the Ombudsman is required to do so by the Ombudsman Transitional Order; or

  3. (5)

    the respondent has consented to the Ombudsman considering the complaint where the time limits in DISP 2.8.2 R or DISP 2.8.7 R have expired (but this does not apply to a “relevant complaint” within the meaning of section 404B(3) of the Act512).411

    210411
DISP 2.8.2A R RP

4 11If a respondent consents to the Ombudsman considering a complaint in accordance with DISP 2.8.2 R (5), the respondent may not withdraw consent.

DISP 2.8.3 G RP

1 9The six-month time limit is only triggered by a response which is a final response, redress determination or summary resolution communication512. The response 411must tell the complainant about the six-month time limit that the complainant has to refer a complaint to the Financial Ombudsman Service.

4 11 5 12 4 11
DISP 2.8.4 G RP

1 9An example of exceptional circumstances might be where the complainant has been or is incapacitated.

Pensions review and FSAVC review6

DISP 2.8.5 R RP

1 9The six-year and the three-year time limits do not apply where:

  1. (1)

    [deleted]3

    3
  2. (2)

    the complaint concerns a contract or policy which is the subject of a review directly or indirectly under:

    1. (a)

      the terms of the Statement of Policy on 'Pension transfers and Opt-outs' issued by the FSA on 25 October 1994; or

    2. (b)

      the terms of the policy statement for the review of specific categories of FSAVC business issued by the FSA on 28 February 2000.

Mortgage endowment complaints

DISP 2.8.6 G RP

1 9If a complaint relates to the sale of an endowment policy for the purpose of achieving capital repayment of a mortgage, the receipt by the complainant of a letter which states that there is a risk (rather than a high risk) that the policy would not, at maturity, produce a sum large enough to repay the target amount is not, itself, sufficient to cause the three year time period in DISP 2.8.2R (2) to start to run.

DISP 2.8.7 R RP
  1. (1)

    19If a complaint relates to the sale of an endowment policy for the purpose of achieving capital repayment of a mortgage and the complainant receives a letter from a firm or a VJ participant warning that there is a high risk that the policy will not, at maturity, produce a sum large enough to repay the target amount then, subject to (2), (3), (4) and (5):

    1. (a)

      time for referring a complaint to the Financial Ombudsman Service starts to run from the date the complainant receives the letter; and

    2. (b)

      ends three years from that date ("the final date").

  2. (2)

    Paragraph (1)(b) applies only if the complainant also receives within the three year period mentioned in (1)(b) and at least six months before the final date an explanation that the complainant's time to refer such a complaint would expire at the final date.

  3. (3)

    If an explanation is given but is sent outside the period referred to in (2), time for referring a complaint will run until a date specified in such an explanation which must not be less than six months after the date on which the notice is sent.

  4. (4)

    A complainant will be taken to have complied with the time limits in (1) to (3) above if in any case he refers the complaint to the firm or VJ participant within those limits and has a written acknowledgement or some other record of the complaint having been received.

  5. (5)

    Paragraph (1) does not apply if the Ombudsman is of the opinion that, in the circumstances of the case, it is appropriate for DISP 2.8.2R (2) to apply.

Payment protection insurance complaints

DISP 2.8.8 G RP

7 13If a complaint relates to the sale of a payment protection contract, knowledge by the complainant that there was a problem with the sale of the payment protection contract generally (for example where there has been a rejection of a claim on the grounds of ineligibility or exclusion, or the complainant has received a customer contact letter explaining that they may have been mis-sold) would not in itself ordinarily be sufficient to establish for the purposes of the three-year time period in DISP 2.8.2R(2) that the complainant had become aware (or ought reasonably to have become aware) that he or she had cause for complaint in respect of a failure to make the disclosure set out at DISP App 3.3A.2E (relating to failure to disclose commission).

DISP 2.8.9 R RP
  1. (1)

    713In addition to DISP 2.8.1R and DISP 2.8.2R, unless one or more of the conditions in (2) below is met, the Ombudsman cannot consider a complaint which:

    1. (a)

      relates to the sale of a payment protection contract that took place on or before 29 August 2017; and

    2. (b)

      expresses dissatisfaction about the sale, or matters related to the sale, including where there is a rejection of claims on the grounds of ineligibility or exclusion (but not matters unrelated to the sale, such as delays in claims handling or administrative matters such as taking the incorrect amount of premium).

  2. (2)

    The conditions are that:

    1. (a)

      the complainant referred the complaint to the respondent or to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or before 29 August 2019 and has a written acknowledgement or some other record of the complaint having been received; or

    2. (b)

      in the view of the Ombudsman, the failure to comply with the time limit in (2)(a) was as a result of exceptional circumstances; or

    3. (c)

      the respondent has consented to the Ombudsman considering the complaint where the time limit in (2)(a) has expired (but this does not apply to a “relevant complaint” within the meaning of section 404B(3) of the Act); or

    4. (d)

      the complaint:

      1. (i)

        is made on or after 29 August 2019;

      2. (ii)

        relates to the sale of a payment protection contract that was live as at 29 August 2017;

      3. (iii)

        is made following a full or partial rejection of a claim on or after 29 August 2017 on the grounds of ineligibility, exclusion or limitation

      and this condition applies only to the extent that the complaint relates to those grounds of rejection.

DISP 2.8.10 G RP

7 13Where a complaint meets the requirements of DISP 2.8.9R(2)(d), those parts of the complaint that relate to the grounds of rejection of the claim are not subject to the restriction in DISP 2.8.9R(1) on an Ombudsman considering the complaint.

DISP 2 Annex 1 Regulated Activities for the Voluntary Jurisdiction at 30 November 202419162710987254254262666

This table belongs to DISP 2.5.1 R21

G

The activities which were covered by the Compulsory Jurisdiction (at 30 November 202419) were:

18 17 16 15 14 30 12 11 13 13 29 9 10 3 24 3 24 26 26 6 7 8 6 27 23
  1. (1) for firms:

    1. (a) regulated activities (other than auction regulation bidding, administering a benchmark and dealing with unwanted asset money);18

      12 15 29
    2. (b) payment services;

    3. [deleted]324

    4. (d) lending money secured by a charge on land;

    5. (e) lending money (excluding restricted credit where that is not a credit-related regulated activity);324

      3 24
    6. (f) paying money by a plastic card (excluding a store card where that is not a credit-related regulated activity);324

      3 24
    7. (g) providing ancillary banking services;

    8. 26(h) [deleted]5

      5
    9. (i) CBTL business;

      6
    10. (j) offering and/or issuing of investments by ISPVs;10

    11. (k) giving non-personal recommendation advice;28

    23
  2. (2) for payment service providers:

    1. (a) payment services;

    2. (b) credit-related regulated activities;324

      3 24

    or any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the payment service provider in connection with them.23

  3. (3) for electronic money issuers:

    1. (a) issuance of electronic money;

      3 24
    2. (b) credit-related regulated activities;324

      3 24

    or any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the electronic money issuer in connection with them23;6

  4. (4) for CBTL firms: CBTL business or any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the CBTL firm in connection with it.

    6
  5. (5) for designated credit reference agencies:7

    1. (a) providing credit information under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Credit Information) Regulations; or7

    2. (b) any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the designated credit reference agency in connection with the activity in (a).7

  6. 9(6) for designated finance platforms:

    1. (a)9 providing specified information under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations; or

    2. (b)9 any ancillary activities, including advice, carried on by the designated finance platform in connection with the activity in paragraph (a).

  7. (7) for investment firms authorised under the UK provisions which implemented13MiFID:27

    1. (a) providing investment services; 27

    2. (b) providing ancillary services; 27

    3. (c) selling structured deposits to clients; and27

    4. (d) advising clients on structured deposits;27

    (and, in the case of investment services and ancillary services, this includes any acts which are preparatory to the provision of an investment service or ancillary service which are an integral part of such a service).27

  8. (8) for a CRD credit institution: 27

    1. (a) providing investment services; 27

    2. (b) selling structured deposits to clients; and27

    3. (c) advising clients on structured deposits;27

    (and, in the case of investment services, this includes any acts which are preparatory to the provision of an investment service which are an integral part of such a service).27

  9. (9) for a collective portfolio management investment firm:27

    1. (a) when providing the activities permitted by the UK provisions which implemented13 article 6(3) of the UCITS Directive; and27

    2. (b) when providing the activities permitted by the UK provisions which implemented13 article 6(4) of the AIFMD;27

    and, in the case of such activities, this includes any acts which are preparatory to the provision of an investment service which are an integral part of such a service).27

The activities which (at 30 November 202419) were regulated activities were, in accordance with section 22 of the Act (Regulated Activities), any of the following activities specified in Part II and Parts 3A and 3B of the Regulated Activities Order (with the addition of auction regulation bidding, administering a benchmark and dealing with unwanted asset money):

1 20 12 29 13 11 11 29 21 2 22 3 24 25 4 25 4 26 26 6 6 7 10 27 23 21 27 27 18 17 16 15 14 30 15
  1. (1) accepting deposits (article 5);

  2. (2) issuing electronic money (article 9B);

  3. (3) effecting contracts of insurance (article 10(1));

  4. (4) carrying out contracts of insurance (article 10(2));

  5. (4A) insurance risk transformation (article 13A);10

  6. (5) dealing in investments as principal (article 14);

  7. (6) dealing in investments as agent (article 21);

  8. (7) arranging (bringing about) deals in investments (article 25(1));

  9. (8) making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments (article 25(2));

  10. (9) arranging (bringing about) regulated mortgage contracts (article 25A(1));

  11. (10) making arrangements with a view to regulated mortgage contracts (article 25A(2));

  12. (11) arranging (bringing about) a home reversion plan (article 25B(1));

  13. (12) making arrangements with a view to a home reversion plan (article 25B(2));

  14. (13) arranging (bringing about) a home purchase plan (article 25C(1));

  15. (14) making arrangements with a view to a home purchase plan (article 25C(2));

  16. 21(14A) operating a multilateral trading facility (article 25D);

  17. (14B) arranging (bringing about) a regulated sale and rent back agreement (article 25E(1));

  18. (14C) making arrangements with a view to a regulated sale and rent back agreement (article 25E(2));

  19. (14D) credit broking (article 36A);324

  20. (14E) operating an electronic system in relation to lending (article 36H);324

  21. (15) managing investments (article 37);

  22. (16) assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance (article 39A);

  23. (16A) debt adjusting (article 39D(1) and (2));324

  24. (16B) debt counselling (article 39E(1) and (2));324

  25. (16C) debt collecting (article 39F(1) and (2));324

  26. (16D) debt administration (article 39G(1) and (2));324

  27. (17) safeguarding and administering investments (article 40);

  28. (18) sending dematerialised instructions (article 45(1));

  29. (19) causing dematerialised instructions to be sent (article 45(2));

  30. 25 4
  31. 25 4
  32. 25 4
  33. 25 4
  34. (22A) managing a UK UCITS13 (article 51ZA);23

  35. (22B) acting as a trustee or depositary of a UCITS (article 51ZB);23

  36. (22C) managing an AIF (article 51ZC);23

  37. (22D) acting as a trustee or depositary of an AIF (article 51ZD);23

  38. (22E) establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme (article 51ZE);23

  39. (23) establishing, operating or winding up a stakeholder pension scheme (article 52(a));

  40. (24) providing basic advice on a stakeholder product (article 52B);

  41. (25) establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme (article 52(b));

  42. (26) advising on investments (except P2P agreements)8 (article 53(1)8);

  43. (26A) advising on P2P agreements (article 53(2));8

  44. (27) advising on regulated mortgage contracts (article 53A);

  45. (28) advising on a home reversion plan (article 53B);

  46. (28A) 6advising on a home purchase plan (article 53C);

    6
  47. (29) 6advising on a regulated sale and rent back agreement (article 53D);

    21 6
  48. (29A) advising on regulated credit agreements for the acquisition of land (article 53DA)

    6
  49. (29B) advising on conversion or transfer of pension benefits (article 53E);5

  50. (30) advising on syndicate participation at Lloyd's (article 56);

  51. (31) managing the underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyd's (article 57);

  52. (32) arranging deals in contracts of insurance written at Lloyd's (article 58);

  53. (32A) entering into a regulated credit agreement (article 60B(1));324

  54. (32B) exercising, or having the right to exercise, rights and duties under a regulated credit agreement (article 60(B)(2);324

  55. (32C) entering into a regulated consumer hire agreement (article 60N(1));324

  56. (32D) exercising, or having the right to exercise rights and duties under a regulated consumer hire agreement (article 60N(2));324

  57. (33) entering into a regulated mortgage contract (article 61(1));

  58. (34) administering a regulated mortgage contract (article 61(2));

  59. (35) entering into a home reversion plan (article 63B(1));

  60. (36) administering a home reversion plan (article 63B(2));

  61. (37) entering into a home purchase plan (article 63F(1));

  62. (38) administering a home purchase plan (article 63F(2));

  63. 21(38A) entering into a regulated sale and rent back agreement (article 63J(1));

  64. (38B) administering a regulated sale and rent back agreement (article 63J(2));

  65. (38C) meeting of repayment claims (article 63N(1)(a));23

  66. (38D) managing dormant asset funds (including the investment of such funds)17 (article 63N(1)(b));23

  67. (38E) providing information in relation to a specified benchmark (article 63O(1)(a));23

  68. (38F) administering a specified benchmark (article 63O(1)(b));23

  69. (39) entering as provider into a funeral plan contract (article 59);

  70. 16(39A) carrying out a funeral plan contract as provider (article 59(1A));

  71. (40) agreeing to carry on a regulated activity (article 64);

  72. (40A) providing credit information services (article 89A);324

  73. (40B) providing credit references (article 89B);324

  74. (41) seeking out, referrals and identification of claims or potential claims (article 89G);11

  75. (42) advice, investigation or representation in relation to a personal injury claim (article 89H);11

  76. (43) advice, investigation or representation in relation to a financial services or financial product claim (article 89I); 11

  77. (44) advice, investigation or representation in relation to a housing disrepair claim (article 89J);11

  78. (45) advice, investigation or representation in relation to a claim for a specified benefit (article 89K);11

  79. (46) advice, investigation or representation in relation to a criminal injury claim (article 89L);11

  80. (47) advice, investigation or representation in relation to an employment-related claim (article 89M);11

  81. 19(48) regulated pensions dashboard activity (article 89BA);

which is carried on by way of business and relates to a specified investment applicable to that activity or, in the case of 11(22A), (22B), (22C), (22D), (22E) and (23), is carried on in relation to property of any kind or, in the case of (40A) or (40B) relates to information about a person’s financial standing or, in the case of (41) to (47), is or relates to claims management services and is carried on in Great Britain11.

25 4 25 4 25 4 3 24